Davidpt
Well-Known Member
Exactly, they didn’t know the answer when they asked, that’s why that question had to have been asked prior to the writing of Revelation or possibly just shortly after but certainly not in our future.
Using logic like you are using would be like saying since Revelation 20 already records satan getting cast into the LOF, this can't happen in the future since John already saw this happen in the past during these visions.
Take the following, for example.
Ezekiel 39:8 Behold, it is come, and it is done, saith the Lord GOD; this is the day whereof I have spoken.
If this is still in the future like some of us tend to believe, the fact God is already on record saying Behold, it is come, and it is done, this is the day whereof I have spoken, and if applying your logic to this, that when that day actually arrives though, He can't say what He said here because He already said it before it even comes to pass.
Regardless when Ezekiel 39:8 is meaning, it was obviously still in the future when God initially said that through Ezekiel. Where I tend to think the following is when God actually says this in the future.
Revelation 16:17 And the seventh angel poured out his vial into the air; and there came a great voice out of the temple of heaven, from the throne, saying, It is done.
Behold, it is come, and it is done, saith the Lord GOD----and there came a great voice out of the temple of heaven, from the throne, saying, It is done. IOW, one day in the future though it is already recorded that God from the throne, saying, It is done, He is actually going to say that at the time, otherwise we were lied to here.