ewq1938
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- Jul 11, 2015
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But.... no one is answering of why is it that there are two son(s) of perdition [destruction] written in the KJV-NT, thus making it plural and not singular, as church-ianity would have us believe?
There are many (plural) people in the world but tht doesn't make YOU plural does it? One of the various types of church-ianity teaches there is no singular AC when the bible says there is.
KJV John.17
[12] While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.
KJV 2Thes.2
[3] Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Would not Judas Iscariot be also "that* man of sin", which is described in John 3:18, as being "condemned already"?
Clearly not because the prophecy that the AC would come was after Judas died. John's AC that was "to come" and Paul's man of sin who performs miracles to deceive has not yet come.