Isaiah 54 is obviously not referring to Eve! It is symbolically referring to Zion/Israel, to whom God says, verse 5, "For your Maker is your husband; Yahweh of Armies is his name. The Holy One of Israel is your Redeemer. He will be called the God of the whole earth". But even so, all Bible references to a woman that is not Eve does not mean that the woman referred to in Genesis 3:15 is also not Eve! Eve was the only woman that had ever existed when God spoke to the serpent in the garden of Eden at Genesis 3:15. Read it again, Genesis 3:12-16 (WEB):
(12) The man said, “The woman whom you gave to be with me, she gave me fruit from the tree, and I ate it.”
(13) Yahweh God said to the woman, “What have you done?” The woman said, “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.”
(14) Yahweh God said to the serpent, “Because you have done this, you are cursed above all livestock, and above every animal of the field. You shall go on your belly and you shall eat dust all the days of your life.
(15) I will put hostility between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring. He will bruise your head, and you will bruise his heel.”
(16) To the woman he said, “I will greatly multiply your pain in childbirth. In pain you will bear children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.”
"The woman" is clearly referring to Eve in those verses, just as it is clear that "the man" is referring to Adam. They were the only two humans that had existed up to that time. Next you'll be saying that the serpent that God was talking to wasn't the serpent that talked with the woman!

The whole of chapter 3 speaks of "the woman", "the serpent" and "the man". It's not until after this that Adam gives the woman a name - Genesis 3:20 (WEB) - "The man called his wife Eve because she would be the mother of all the living".
Paul mentions two women by name, Sarah and Hagar, and quoting Isaiah 54:1 as a reference to Sarah (who was barren until she gave birth to Isaac in her old age). Verse 22 says, "For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the servant, and one by the free woman". So it is talking about Abraham having a son via a slave woman and a free woman. Clearly this has absolutley nothing to do with Eve, and has no bearing on who the woman was (Eve) that is mentioned in Genesis 3:15!
Again God is symbolically referring to Zion/Israel. Verse 14 says, (WEB):
(14) The sons of those who afflicted you will come bowing to you; and all those who despised you will bow themselves down at the soles of your feet. They will call you Yahweh’s City, The Zion of the Holy One of Israel.
Precisely, it's referring to the nation of Israel and not to an actual single woman. It has no bearing on Genesis 3:15.
You seem to be quoting the NWT, but there is no reference to a woman in the translations I've looked at. Again it's symbolically referring to Jerusalem/Israel. Refer to the previous verse for context (NWT):
(1) For the sake of Zion I will not keep silent, and for the sake of Jerusalem I will not keep still until her righteousness shines like a bright light and her salvation burns like a torch.
(2) The nations will see your righteousness, O woman, and all kings your glory.
or WEB:
(2) The nations will see your righteousness, and all kings your glory, ...
That's a totally illogical deduction!