Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?

[Taken]

Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?​

Because:

The World of Heaven, ONE KINGDOM, THRONE, is RULED by A SPIRIT Ruler, Governor, Sovereign KING, called God.
And “THE Subordinates / THE Subjects / THE Ruled”….ARE “spirits”.

The World of Earth, Has Numerous KINGDOMS, Thrones, Rulers, Governors, kings, called Human Men….Whose authority is supreme over its, subjects, citizens.

Anciently…God Established…ONE “Everlasting” Throne “ON EARTH”…And APPOINTED ONE Living human man to OCCUPY THAT Throne…

1 Samuel
2 Samuel
1 Kings
2 Kings
1 Chronicles
2 Chronicles

Reveals Gods Establishment of An Everlasting Throne.
WHERE precisely Is the Kingdom.
WHERE precisely Is the seat of Governance, WHO precisely was First Seated in the throne
WHO are the Subjects OF that seated King.
WHO are the descending Generational Kings to Be.
WHO is the Supreme, Power, Authority, Governor, KING Over that Earthly everlasting Throne and Kingdom.

By Gods Design…The Ruling Power and Authority ON Earth HAD to BE…
A Visible “MAN” LAWFULLY descended “OF” the House of King David…Thus BEING…
“Lawfully”…ENTITLED;
* To Be seated on King David’s Throne
* And Lawful Heir To Abraham’s Promised Land “ie KINGDOM.”

Gods BIG PICTURE…INTENT…AGENDA…
IS;
* To CEASE the existance of MORTAL human men, presently All Subject to bodily Death.
* To Offer ALL mortal human MEN, an OPTION, of a RE/MAKING of their mortal body, TO be never again subject To Death.
* To Freely by every mans WILL, Election, choice to Accept OR Reject Gods Offering.
* To OPEN the Barrier, between Two Worlds;
Heaven AND Earth…to BECOME citizens of “ONE KINGDOM”…Subjects OF ONE Mighty Ruling KING.

Step by step, little by little…God Tells, God Teaches, God Reveals…His Intent, His Offerings, His Options, His Order, His Way…

And Human manKIND can TRY (taste), spit out, KEEP (eat), REJECT Gods Offerings and Promised Results…

Men ARE stubborn and quickly Reject that which they CAN NOT SEE or UNDERSTAND.

God…in His Grace and WISDOM…Promised…then gave men “Something” they Could “SEE”…which…God having Purposed in Human men for 4,000 years to Teach other Human men….(failure on humans part…)
* God PURPOSED in HIMSELF… to take upon Himself the LIKENESS “AS” a Human man, For Human men TO SEE and HEAR His Truth and SEE His Example….and?
Some Trust Gods Words…some do not…
Human FREEWILL…and the consequences, fully revealed for a mans choice.

Eph 1:

1. • [9] Having made known unto us the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure which he hath purposed in himself

And…so stands this World…Divided…
Believers…Unbelievers Divided.
They with the Truth…They without the Truth, Divided.
They Believing With Understanding…They Believing WithOUT Understanding…Divided.

Glory to God,
Taken

 

[Jack]

"Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?"

He doesn't 'need' to be, but the Bible clearly declares Jesus to be God the Creator and man.

 

[LuxMundi]

Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?​

The Father and the Holy Spirit are invisible and incorporeal, as was the Word until that Person of the Holy Trinity became human: Jesus. Human sight or any other human sense never saw God before He became incarnate and cannot physically see the First and Third Persons (the Father and the Holy Spirit), but sees Them in the works which were or are carried out by Them. [N: 45-50]

Since the earthly creation has instead yielded Adam and Adam's race, Mary witnesses to the merciful superlove of God towards man, for through Mary, Mother of the Redeemer, God has worked the salvation of the human race. Jesus is the Christ because Mary conceived Him and gave Him to the World.

One may say that God could overcome the need to take flesh in a woman's womb. He could do all, it's true. But reflect on the law of order and goodness which lies in His annihilation in mortal clothing.

The sin committed by man had to be expiated by man and not by the nonincarnate divinity. How could the Divinity, incorporeal Spirit, redeem the sins of the flesh with the sacrifice of Itself? It was, then, necessary that God should pay for the sins of flesh and blood with the agony of an innocent Flesh and Blood, born of an innocent woman.

God's mind, God's feeling, and God's spirit would have suffered for our sins in mind, feeling, and spirit. But to be the Redemption of all forms of concupiscence inoculated into Adam and his descendants by the Tempter, the One Immolated for them all had to be endowed with a nature like ours, made worthy of being given as a ransom to God by the Divinity hidden in it, like a gem of infinite supernatural value hidden under common, natural clothing.

God is order, and God does not violate or do violence to order, except in very exceptional cases, judged useful by his Intelligence. Such was not the case with His Redemption.

God had not only to cancel sin from the moment it occurred until the moment of the sacrifice and annul in those to come the effects of sin by having them be born unaware of evil. No. With a total sacrifice God had to make reparation for Sin and the sins of all mankind give the men already dead absolution of sin, and give those living at that time and in the future the means to be helped to resist evil and to be forgiven for the evil which their weakness would lead them to do.

God's sacrifice thus had to be such as to present all the necessary requisites, and it could be such only in a God made man: a host worthy of God, a means understood by man. In addition, He was coming to bring the Law.

If His Humanity had not existed, how could we—His poor brothers and sisters, who labor to have faith in Him, who lived for thirty-three years on the earth, a Man among men—have believed? And how could He appear, already an adult, to hostile or ignorant peoples, making them convinced of His nature and His doctrine? He would then have appeared, in the eyes of the world, as a spirit who had taken on a human likeness, but not as a man Who was born and died, shedding real blood through the wounds of a real flesh as proof of being a man—and rose again and ascended to Heaven with His glorified body—as proof of being God returning to His eternal dwelling.

Isn't it sweeter for us to think that He is really our brother, with the destiny of creatures who are born, live, suffer, and die, than to conceive of Him as a Spirit superior to the exigencies of humanity?

It was necessary, then, for a woman to give birth to Him according to the flesh, after having conceived Him above the flesh, for from no marriage of creatures, no matter how holy they were, could the God-Man be conceived, but only from a wedding of Purity and Love, the Spirit and the Virgin, created without stain so as to be the matrix for the flesh of a God, the Virgin the thought of Whom was God's joy, since before time existed, the Virgin in Whom there is a compendium of the Father's creative perfection, the joy of Heaven, the salvation of the Earth, the most beautiful flower of Creation of all the flowers of the Universe, a living star before whom all the suns created by the Father seem dull. [N: 43]

 

[Wrangler]

"Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?"

He doesn't 'need' to be, but the Bible clearly declares Jesus to be God the Creator and man.

1st time Scripture was invoked in this thread. Oddly, Scripture does not state what you claim - unless you rely on a bad translation.

2nd, OTOH, the Bible repeatedly and clearly declares there is only one God, the Father. So, rather than the topic assume a conclusion, imagine questioning the premise?

3rd, the rationalization for why he has to be God is based on taking a figurative idea as literally the case. For instance, Eve might be called the mother of us all. However, this is understood to not be literally true.

 

[Taken]

Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?​

Inanutshell …
Establish Lawful Authority to Rule over Heaven AND Earth AND all its inhabitants.

Glory to God,
Taken

 

[Rich R]

Scripture says all have sinned, means all mankind and there is none righteous, no not one.
Christ then has to be more than man, must also be God as Christ was without sin.

Jesus was certainly not a "mere" man. Actually according to Ps 8:4-5, there is no such thing a "mere" man, but that's another story.

Adam was created perfect. But he had free will. He could have obeyed God, but he didn't. The point is, a man has the potential to live a perfect life. Genesis 1 says a few times that seed produces offspring with the same nature as the parent. Since Adam failed, all his seed (his descendants) shared in the sin nature.

But Jesus was not born of the Adam's seed. He was conceived in Mary's womb by holy spirit. He, like the first Adam was created without sin. But also, like the first Adam, Jesus had free will. That is precisely why he was tempted in all points just the like rest of us. Do you have any consciousness that you are God when tempted? Well, Jesus was tempted just like you. He didn't think he was God any more than you think you are God. Jesus having free will could have gone the same route as the first Adam. Jesus didn't sin because he was God. He didn't sin because, unlike all other men that ever lived, he always obeyed God. It's a huge difference.

I can't imagine what was going through his mind in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked his Father if there wasn't some other to redeem us. He asked 3 times and God gave the same answer 3 times; "nope, you have to be crucified." Jesus answered, "not my will, but yours be done." God had a will and Jesus had a different will. Nonetheless, Jesus didn't follow his will (the mistake of the first Adam), but he followed God's will instead.

This then is the the truest love a man can have. Jesus was a man. He was a man who loved people he never even met so much that he willingly allowed himself to be tortured and crucified. I ask you, what would be greater: God (who could not sin nor be tempted in the first place) to obey Himself, or a man with like passions as the rest of us to voluntarily live a perfect life and then allow himself to suffer the death he endured? No, Jesus was certainly not a "mere" man, but he was a man. He was the greatest man, the most loving man, that ever lived. He is our savior. The Bible calls him a man at least a half dozen times. Not once does it call him a God (Yahweh to be more precise). The doctrine that says he is God must be "derived" from the scriptures. It is nowhere plainly stated as it plainly states he was a man. But then many people have "derived" many heresies form the Bible throughout history. Accept the simple words of the Bible for what they plainly say and it's a much better story.

Rom 5:15,

But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.​

Acts 2:22,

Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:​

Acts 17:31,

Because he (God) hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by [that] man (Jesus) whom he hath ordained; [whereof] he hath given assurance unto all [men], in that he hath raised him from the dead.​

1 Tim 2:5,

For [there is] one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;​

John 4:29,

Come, see a man, which told me all things that ever I did: is not this the Christ?​

(Israel was looking for a man to redeem them. Nowhere is there a hint they were looking for a god-man.)

John 8:40,

But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.​

1 Cor 15:21,

For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man.​

​

1 Cor 15:21 does not say that only God could redeem man. Quite to the contrary, it clearly says that our future resurrection is because of the man Christ Jesus. The only question is whether to believe tradition or the truth.

 

[Wrangler]

Why Does the Savior Need to Be Both God and Man?

In short, the implied premise of your question is wrong. Scripture teaches repeatedly and explicitly that Jesus is a man AND that there is only one God, the Father.

So, where does that leave us? Needing to understand agency and substitutionary punishment making up this dynamic duo.

Regarding agency, if you are drowning in the ocean and a captain orders his ship to your location and an ensign is the one to literally pull you from the water, who is your savior, the captain or the ensign?