False!
Messiah the Prince upper caps (M/P) is deity
prince lower caps (p) not deity in Jesus Christ as you falsely claim
1 Corinthians 8:5-6KJV
5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Daniel 9:25-26KJV
25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
So, is it your belief that the Bible was originally written in King James English? The King James translators decided to capitalize "Prince" in verse 25 and not to capitalize "prince" in verse 26, but there was no basis for doing so since the Hebrew word they translated is the same in each verse. The NIV translators were at least consistent in their translation of the Hebrew word.
Daniel 9:25 “Know and understand this: From the time the word goes out to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One,
the ruler, comes, there will be seven ‘sevens,’ and sixty-two ‘sevens.’ It will be rebuilt with streets and a trench, but in times of trouble. 26 After the sixty-two ‘sevens,’ the Anointed One will be put to death and will have nothing. The people of
the ruler who will come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end will come like a flood: War will continue until the end, and desolations have been decreed.
Other translations like the ESV translate the word as "a prince" and "the prince" in each verse, so it also is consistent with the case it uses when translating the word. So, going by whether the word was capitalized or not in an English translation is not a valid way of determining the truth of this matter.
Revelation 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and
the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood, - KJV
Did the King James translators make a mistake by not capitalizing "the prince" in this verse since it refers to Jesus Christ? Or can you acknowledge that it doesn't matter if they capitalized it or not?