I considered it, and in Light of what Christ has taught by the Holy Spirit I found it to be a false doctrine of men.
It's very clear to me that you haven't spent much time considering it.
These verses alone prove it to be FALSE doctrine.
Revelation 5:9-10
King James Version
9 And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;
10 And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign (((on the earth.)))
I have addressed this already and you said nothing in response. Why do you reject Amil without even considering our explanation for this passage?
Look at this passage:
Revelation 1:5 And from
Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and
the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood, 6 And
hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
Just like Revelation 5:9-10, this talks about believers already having been MADE kings and priests. Do you just ignore that? If we are already kings and priests now, as these passages indicate, and we are on the earth now, as is obviously the case, then how can't it be that we are not kings and priests reigning on the earth now? You should not just ignore the fact that we have already been made kings and priests. It says we have. So, why do we need to wait in order to reign with Christ on the earth? He lives within us, we are on the earth, and we are kings and priests. That shows Revelation 5:10 to be present tense. Don't get thrown off by the English wording there. It says "shall reign" but that can be understood in the present tense going forward as well, like we see here:
Romans 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. 15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. 16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. 17
For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
This is talking about Christ's followers reigning in life because of Jesus Christ. It says "shall reign in life" yet it's talking about an ongoing reality that was already true back then. That's how Revelation 5:9-10 should be understood as well. You are only skimming the surface of passages like this and not studying it in depth. That's not wise.
Revelation 20:4-6
King James Version
4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Those who resist this Truth also resist the Holy Spirit. Case closed.
Your interpretation of this passage isn't truth, so the case is not closed. Your mind is closed. Your interpretation of this passage doesn't line up with all of scripture. In verse 4 John says that he saw souls and said "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years". The Greek word translated as "lived" there is "zao" and that word does not mean to be resurrected from the dead. It means to be alive and to live. So, John was seeing the souls of the dead in Christ reigning with Christ in heaven. The Greek word "anazao" is used in verse 5 to describe the rest of the dead living again. That word does describe being resurrected from the dead.
To have part in the first resurrection is not to be bodily resurrected. Scripture teaches that Christ's resurrection was the first bodily resurrection unto bodily immortality.
1 Corinthians 15:20 But
now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
Acts 26:23 That
Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.
To have part in the first resurrection means to have part in Christ's resurrection which we all do spiritually.
Colossians 2:12
Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead. 13 And
you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
So, this is the proper way of understanding having part in the first resurrection in such a way that agrees with the rest of scripture. Notice what it says in Revelation 20:6. The second death has no power over those who have part in the first resurrection. Does the second death have power over us right now? No, it does not. The wages of sin is death (the second death) only for those whose sins are not forgiven. Does the second death have power over the souls of the dead in Christ in heaven right now? No, it does not. So, what does this tell us? That Christians, both dead (souls in heaven) and alive, have had part in the first resurrection which results in the second death having no power over us.
The other thing to consider in relation to Revelation 20 is the question of when does Christ reign? Clearly, He has been reigning since His resurrection as several passages including Matthew 28:16-18 and Ephesians 1:19-22 indicate. He said Himself that all power in heaven and earth was given to Him (Matthew 28:18). Why do you not take things like this into consideration?
One other thing to consider is what Jesus taught here:
John 5:28 Marvel not at this: for
the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
Jesus taught there is one coming hour at which point ALL of the dead will be resurrected. This is very straightforward. Our doctrine should be based on straightforward scripture like this. We can that use that foundational doctrine to help understand more difficult scriptures found in highly symbolic books like Daniel and Revelation. Why are you willing to interpret Revelation 20 in such a way that directly contradicts what Jesus taught in John 5:28-29? You have the lost/unsaved dead being resurrected 1,000+ years after the saved even though Jesus said they will be resurrected in the same hour. Why do you not take things like this into consideration? Case closed you say? You have only skimmed the surface of this topic and you closed the case before you ever even got below the surface. That is not how you should interpret scripture.
You need to dig deeper. Yes, the Holy Spirit reveals things to us and that is how we learn, but we have to put in the effort to study the scriptures as well. He won't just supernaturally reveal things to us while we sit and do nothing. I can only conclude that you are a premillennialist because that's what you want to believe rather than you concluding that after an exhaustive study of scripture.