The future rule of an Antichrist is not from Scripture. It is a human invention to fill in the gaps of human theology.
Well, that is your opinion. In my estimation, the Apostle John spoke of the Antichrist in this way:
1 John 2.18 Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour.
John expected the Antichrist to come in the future. Why did he think this, and what does he base this on?
In my view, all of the NT doctrine concerning the Beast and the Antichrist originates from Dan 7, where Daniel sees the Little Horn boasting before God and defeating the saints. This is the Antichrist. The "Son of Man coming with the clouds" is the Christ who the Little Horn opposes. He tries to stop his Kingdom from coming. Therefore, he is called, by John, the "Antichrist."
The "Beast" is the 4th Kingdom out of which comes this Little Horn. It is, I believe, the Roman Empire, which is the 4th in successive kingdoms following after the Babylonian Kingdom Daniel served in.
John did not know how long it would take before this 4th Kingdom broke up into 10 states, out of which the Antichrist would emerge. He just knew this was the sequence of events, according to Daniel's Dream.
John saw the already present reality of "antichrists," who opposed Jesus' ministry, as evidence that the "last hour" was already here. John did not know how long this "last hour" would last. ;) We have had antichrists opposing Christianity for 2000 years, and yet the Antichrist has not yet appeared, nor do we have the 10 nations originating out of Roman Europe coalescing into a united Kingdom. We do not yet even know what 10 those states would be!
All of the beast that Daniel saw that many think are future were already fulfilled with Greece and Rome.
Yes, Rome is a fulfilment, but see above. The Roman Kingdom has existed throughout NT history in Europe.
European Civilization is, in a real way, an extension of Roman Civilization. It was Christianized in the early Empire, but today, Europe is being de-Christianized, preparing for the rise of the Antichrist, I believe.
I think it significant that at the point where the Roman Church began to weaken that the European States began to emerge as independent kingdoms. And ultimately, they not only broke from the Holy Roman Empire, but they broke altogether with the Roman Church, and today even from any church!
There is nothing in Revelation unless you all change it around to fit your eschatology, which to you is adding and taking away from what John wrote, concerning a peaceful rule of an AC who kills "Christians".
Where are we told the AC has a "peaceful rule" in the Revelation?
If any poster is called out for changing Revelation to fit their eschatology, the one judging, should not change Revelation either. A huge red flag goes up the minute a person says, Revelation is not in chronological order and so and so teaches us to interpret Revelation "this way".
Determining the sequence of events in the Revelation is a matter of interpretation--not of changing the words or meaning. It really depends on the literary style that Revelation uses. If the style allows for a series of independent visions, then there is nothing inherently wrong with saying it isn't all chronological.
While comparing the Second Coming to a wedding, is interesting, there are a few disclaimers. The church is compared to both the body of Christ, and the bride of Christ. I think both sides get the anology slightly off, especially if one accepts the Day of the Lord is a one thousand year period of time. The church is not wed to Christ until after the Millennium. So any marriage prior to the millennium is a different group, that many still gloss over.
Not glossing anything over, I don't define the "Day of the Lord" in the same way every place the term is used. In my understanding, the Church is wed to Christ at the moment we are glorified. Prior to that we are not properly "dressed" for the occasion! ;)
This is the church in Revelation 21:
"And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband."
Jesus is not marrying His wife. This bride is not Israel. This bride is not an empty city needing to be filled up with people.
I see Jesus marrying his bride, the international Church, when it is glorified at his Coming. The city represents the people who live there. The term "Jerusalem" is being use, I think, metaphorically and symbolically. The city represents the people. Some elements may be quite literal. We determine that by recognizing what is intended to be symbolic and what is intended to be literal.
These people in this city descending from heaven is still called a bride, not a wife.
Same thing, bride and wife, at the point of marriage, which is, I believe, the day of Christ's Coming. So if the term "bride" is being used for an event a thousand years *after* the 2nd Coming, then it must be identifying the Church as it presently is now, before this happens.
It's like talking about Saul, who would become the Apostle Paul, died in such and such year in such and such a way. But we are just talking about Saul before his name changed to Paul. We could say that either Saul or Paul died in that time and way--both would be true.
The marriage with Israel is the Day of the Lord. When it comes to the marriage of the church, nothing concerning this creation even applies, as there will not even be a physical temple any more, as God and the church as the New Jerusalem is the temple now on earth. At that point the nations and kings of the earth will walk in the light of that temple, the New Jerusalem.
The marriage of Christ with Israel is also when Christ Returns. It is a specific promise made to the nation Israel, although there are many nations who may have similar promises made to them. After all, Abraham was promised "many nations"--not just Israel.
The Lamb and the church are now one and the same. No more separation. The body of Christ and the wife of Christ with no distinction between the 2. The New Jerusalem is now one entity.
Jesus will always be distinct from his Church. We are one in Spirit, but not one in identity. Our common residence in Jerusalem does not blur the distinctions in our individuality--not sure what you're getting at?
So the Day of the Lord is not about the church. It is about Jesus as King over Israel.
Again, it depends on the context for the use of this term, "Day of the Lord." The way it is used in the NT for eschatology is a reference to the specific day of Christ's Return. And it is not just for Israel as a nation, but also for the purpose of glorifying the Church, which will include a remnant of Israel. Israel's unbelievers will be "reborn" into a new Christian nation.
Not all, of course, will be full-fledge believers, but the nation will make a social compact dedicated to Christianity in their nation, I believe.
I've addressed as many points as I can right now... Stick to what the Bible says, and you'll be fine. Try to get "creative," and you'll end up off course. You should agree with this?