Hidden In Him
Well-Known Member
No idea, but it was not a first generation believer, as Heb 2 says.
And about the other question, you are arguing for a date of AD 70 as the date for Hebrews?
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No idea, but it was not a first generation believer, as Heb 2 says.
No, this was when the city of Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 AD and the Jews fled to other locations throughout the world. The nation of Israel (Rom 9-11) was set aside so the Church could take up their role as the new elect people of God.And about the other question, you are arguing for a date of AD 70 as the date for Hebrews?
No, this was when the city of Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 AD and the Jews fled to other locations throughout the world. The nation of Israel (Rom 9-11) was set aside so the Church could take up their role as the new elect people of God.
Here is a brief post by a friend of mine on the date of Hebrews:LoL. KUWN, forgive me here, but I am trying to ask you a question: You are attesting that the gifts had ceased by the time of the writing of Hebrews, so what time do you believe that was specifically? Or in other words:
When do you believe Hebrews was dated?
Here is a brief post by a friend of mine on the date of Hebrews:
The terminus a quo of this epistle must surely be the death of Paul (summer of 64 CE), as can be inferred from 13:7 and 23. Further, these are now second generation Christians (2:3). The terminus ad quem is surely 1 Clement which quotes so extensively from Hebrews. Normally this is dated c. 96 CE, but it is possible that this date is much too late. Robinson, for example, presents evidence that it was written before c.70 CE. If so, then Hebrews must be dated even earlier. Nevertheless, if we side with the broad stream of NT scholarship, the range is c. 64-95 CE.
But there is another piece of evidence which more and more scholars are seeing as quite decisive, especially stimulated as they are by the work of J. A. T. Robinson. Throughout Hebrews the entire levitical system is spoken of in the present tense (cf. especially 5:1-4; 7:20, 23, 27, 28; 8:3, 4, 13; 9:6, 13; 10:2-3, 11). Although these have usually been downplayed by scholarship as bearing no weight (since many of them could easily be customary presents), “in some passages at least the writer is appealing to existing realities, whose actual continuance is essential to his argument.” After quoting 10:2-3 in his own translation (“these sacrifices would surely have ceased to be offered, because the worshipers, cleansed once for all, would no longer have any sense of sin. But instead, in these sacrifices year after year are brought to mind”) Robinson makes the cogent point that “Had the sacrifices in fact ceased to be offered, it is hard to credit that these words could have stood without modification or comment. For their termination would have proved his very point.”21 Thus, it is not just the use of the present tense, but the incredible fact that the author does not point out the ruins of the temple in Jerusalem as vindication of his argument which argues for a date before 70 CE.
Finally, the total lack of awareness of eschatological fulfillment concerning the cult argues that the events of the Olivet Discourse had not yet begun to take shape. To be sure, the author warns of impending persecution—but this is better accounted for as Neronic (especially in light of Paul’s recent death!) than directly related to the destruction of Jerusalem. Thus 65 CE seems to be the best date. We can add further that the spring or summer of 65 is most probable, because in 13:23 the senior author indicates that he will come visit his audience, with Timothy at his side, “if he arrives soon.” Travel would be quite difficult (overseas, virtually impossible) during the winter, hence this note of some urgency would be most appropriate if there were enough time both of the audience to hear of his travel plans and for him to make the trip before winter.
Answer is approximately 65 AD.
The source of his friend's writing,just FYI.Ok, I appreciate you posting that, as nearly all of it falls in line with what I believe as well (the supposition that he is referring to Paul and not some of the other apostles is somewhat inferred IMO, but another question for another time).
If we are going with a date of the summer of 65 A.D., this predates Jude by most scholars estimation, and in Jude we have the following statement towards the end of the letter:
20 But you, beloved, building yourselves up upon your most holy faith, praying in the Holy Spirit (ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳπροσευχόμενοι), 21 keep yourselves in the love of God, looking for the mercy of our Lord Jesus Christ unto eternal life.
I'm guessing this becomes a debate over if the phrase here is referring to supernatural prayer or prayer with the mind, but what is your argument. The phrase "keep yourselves in the love of God" could also be regarded as referring to continuing to abide in the Presence of God. But let me start by asking if believe Jude predates Hebrews.
I think 65 AD is a reasonable date for Jude. Pretty much the same with Hebrews.The phrase "keep yourselves in the love of God" could also be regarded as referring to continuing to abide in the Presence of God. But let me start by asking if believe Jude predates Hebrews.
I think 65 AD is a reasonable date for Jude. Pretty much the same with Hebrews.
I am sorry I haven't answered your question. I see that you have now switched to prayer. I don't see anything mysterious about praying in the holy Spirit. In the holy Spirit would equate to praying while in fellowship, when you are of out of fellowship (having unconfessed sin in your life) you grieve that HS. Being in fellowship is a requirement to pray. And No, it makes no statement about referring to a modern day charismatic experience. I see you haven't read my recent post on the Cessation of miracles based on an analysis of Heb 2: 3, 4. Read that and tell me if you have any more questions.Ok. But you are again not really answering my question. If they are commensurate, does ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳπροσευχόμενοι refer to charismatic experience or no?
I see you haven't read my recent post on the Cessation of miracles based on an analysis of Heb 2: 3, 4. Read that and tell me if you have any more questions.
I don't see anything mysterious about praying in the holy Spirit. In the holy Spirit would equate to praying while in fellowship, when you are of out of fellowship (having unconfessed sin in your life) you grieve that HS. Being in fellowship is a requirement to pray. And No, it makes no statement about referring to a modern day charismatic experience.
The supernatural gift of tongues was the ability to speak another Gentile language that you didn't go through the normal process of having to learn it. For example, and to modernize this, a French man was given the ability to speak Chinese without having to learn the language. That is the gift, the languages that they spoke are listed in Acts 2. Remember that the gift of languages was prophesied in Isaiah 28.11 (what you call the gift of tongues was defined by Isaiah 28 100s of years before the fulfillment of its prophesy). The Jews didn't understand the Assyrian language as they were deported to other countries. The gift of languages (Gentile) was primary for evangelism and for Gentile unbelievers (1 Cor 14.22). I have a longer article on languages I wrote many years ago and if you like, I will send it to you. It was a project I had to complete for my class on the book of Acts back in the 80s.I'm aware. You've already posted it.
How do you interpret εὐλογῇς ἐν πνεύματι (1 Corinthians 14:16). Is he speaking of a supernatural gift or of being in fellowship?
The supernatural gift of tongues was the ability to speak another Gentile language that you didn't go through the normal process of having to learn it. For example, and to modernize this, a French man was given the ability to speak Chinese without having to learn the language. That is the gift, the languages that they spoke are listed in Acts 2. Remember that the gift of languages was prophesied in Isaiah 28.11 (what you call the gift of tongues was defined by Isaiah 28 100s of years before the fulfillment of its prophesy). The Jews didn't understand the Assyrian language as they were deported to other countries. The gift of languages (Gentile) was primary for evangelism and for Gentile unbelievers (1 Cor 14.22). I have a longer article on languages I wrote many years ago and if you like, I will send it to you. It was a project I had to complete for my class on the book of Acts back in the 80s.
Finally, I do not believe that the modern gift of tongues has any relationship to the gift of tongues during the Apostolic Age.
προσεύξομαι τῷ πνεύματι: The How to pray
εὐλογῇς ἐν πνεύματι: The content of prayer, to praise God
The supernatural gift of tongues