Rella ~ I am a woman
Well-Known Member
I didn't. Just as exampleI do not dare to compare the Lord Christ to Trump.
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I didn't. Just as exampleI do not dare to compare the Lord Christ to Trump.
OK... last comment....You can't have intended "him" to mean "Trump" here. (Although his mother was named Mary.)
Not a good example. Trump did not change from a man to the resurrected Lord Christ. But then again, if you believe Jesus was born the Lord Christ because he was already a God baby. Then that's why you see it that way.I didn't. Just as example
Yep...Not a good example. Trump did not change from a man to the resurrected Lord Christ. But then again, if you believe Jesus was born the Lord Christ because he was already a God baby. Then that's why you see it that way.
Are are these people God's too...Yep...
23 “Behold, the virgin shall be with child and shall bear a Son, and they shall call His name [y]Immanuel,” which translated means, “God with us.
I have a question.
Why would any woman who had given birth to Christ Jesus no longer be holy if she followed through with her commitment to her marriage?
Why does that detract from her holy requirements to have Jesus?
Once he is born, why would she need to be remain holy... which people seem to think means without physical relations with her husband... unless it was because she would have heavenly duties that normal people will never attain..... after all... Mathew never told us that.... and we all agree the New Testament books are complete.
Matthew 1
18 Now the birth of Jesus [r]Christ was as follows: when His mother Mary had been [s]betrothed to Joseph, before they came together
(They were betrothed but had not been together yet when she was found pregnant.)
she was found to be with child by the Holy Spirit.
19 And Joseph her husband, being a righteous man and not wanting to disgrace her, planned [t]to send her away secretly.
20 But when he had considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; for [u]the Child who has been [v]conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.
(So an angel appeared to Joseph telling him "do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; " Interesting...
that it did not say he would be living with her as brother and sister... that it was his name that ws needed to keep the baby legitimate)
21 She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for [w]He will save His people from their sins.”
22 Now all this [x]took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet:
23 “Behold, the virgin shall be with child and shall bear a Son, and they shall call His name [y]Immanuel,” which translated means, “God with us.”
(Yes, she was a virgin untouched by any man until Jesus was born..... we know that.)
24 And Joseph [z]awoke from his sleep and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took Mary as his wife,
25 [aa]but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus.
So I repeat... If they had done what they were told until after Jesus was born, why if she had consumated the marriage with Joseph after her days of purification...
BTW... If she was holy ... and such... why did she need purified after the birth?
.... why was it necessary for her to remain untouched the rest of her life?
WE ARE TOLD... all the way back in
Genesis 2....For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.
Matt 19:5 ...and said, ‘FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH ‘?
Mark 10: 6-8 ... “But from the beginning of creation, God MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE.
“FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER,
AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH; so they are no longer two, but one flesh."
Eph 5:31 ... FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND SHALL BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH.
4 times I readily find a man and wife become one flesh... Yet Joseph is told to not be afraid to take Mary as his wife...
So... how is it that chastity is the "requisite" for being holy when over the years... a long while back admittedly...
there were married Popes.... INCLUDING ST. PETER.
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Popes Who Were Married | Articles
There existed Bishops, priest and even Popes who were married before receiving the mantle of Church leadership.catholicsay.com
1. St Peter
Saint Peter (Simon Peter), whose mother-in-law is mentioned in the Gospel verses Matthew 8:14–15, Luke 4:38, Mark 1:29–31 and who was healed by Jesus at her home in Capernaum. This clearly depicts Peter as a married man, and 1 Cor. 9:5 suggests Peter’s wife accompanied him on his mission. Clement of Alexandria notes that “Peter and Philip begat children” and writes: “When the blessed Peter saw his own wife led out to die, he rejoiced because of her summons and her return home, and called to her very encouragingly and comfortingly, addressing her by name, and saying, ‘Remember the Lord.’ Such was the marriage of the blessed, and their perfect disposition toward those dearest to them.” Later legends, dating from the 6th century onwards, suggested that Peter had a daughter – identified as Saint Petronilla. This, however, is likely to be a result of the similarity of their names.
2. Pope St. Hormisdas
He was born at Frosinone, Campagna di Roma, Italy. Before becoming a Roman deacon, Hormisdas was married, and his son would in turn become Pope under the name of Silverius. During the Laurentian schism, Hormisdas was one of the most prominent clerical partisans of Pope Symmachus. He was notary at the synod held at St. Peter’s in 502. Two letters of Magnus Felix Ennodius, bishop of Pavia, survive addressed to him, written when the latter tried to regain horses and money he had lent the Pope.
3. Pope Adrian II
After the death of St. Nicholas I, the Roman clergy and people elected, much against his will, the venerable Cardinal Adrian, universally beloved for his charity and amiability, descended from a Roman family which had already given two pontiffs to the Church, Stephen III and Sergius II. Adrian was now seventy-five years old, and twice before had refused the dignity. He had been married before taking orders, and his old age was saddened by a domestic tragedy. As pope, he followed closely in the footsteps of his energetic predecessor. He strove to maintain peace among the greedy and incompetent descendants of Charlemagne.
4. Pope John XVII
Pope John XVII was Pope for about seven months from 16 May to 6 November 1003.
Before entering the priesthood, Sicco had been married and had three sons who also entered Holy Orders:
He died on 6 November 1003 and was buried in the Lateran Basilica between the two doors of the principal facade. According to John the Deacon, his epitaph began by stating that “here is the tomb of the supreme John, who is said to be Pope, for so he was called.”
- John, Bishop of Praeneste
- Peter, a Deacon
- Andrew, a Secundicerius
5. Pope Clement VI
Born at Saint-Gilles on the Rhone, 23 November, year unknown; elected at Perugia 5 February, 1265; d. at Viterbo, 29 November, 1268. After the death of Urban IV (2 October, 1264), the cardinals, assembled in conclave at Perugia, discussed for four months the momentous question whether the Church should continue the war to the end against the House of Hohenstaufen by calling in Charles of Anjou, the youngest brother of St. Louis of France, or find some other means of securing the independence of the papacy. No other solution offering itself, the only possible course was to unite upon the Cardinal-Bishop of Sabina, by birth a Frenchman and a subject of Charles. Guido Le Gros was of noble extraction.
When his mother died, his father, the knight Foulquois, entered a Carthusian monastery where he ended a saintly life. Guido married, and for a short time wielded the spear and the sword. Then devoting himself to the study of law under the able direction of the famous Durandus, he gained a national reputation as an advocate. St. Louis, who entertained a great respect and affection for him, took him into his cabinet and made him one of his trusted councillors. His wife died, leaving him two daughters, whereupon he imitated his father to the extent that he gave up worldly concerns and took Holy orders.
.. His first act was to forbid any of his relatives to come to the Curia, or to attempt to derive any sort of temporal advantage from his elevation. Suitors for the hands of his daughters were admonished that their prospective brides were “children not of the pope, but of Guido Grossus”, and that their dowers should be extremely modest. The two ladies later preferred the seclusion of the convent.
CONCLUSION... LOOKS LIKE THE HOLY SEES WERE NOT NECESSARILY SO HOLY AFTER ALL.
Well... they were married . That should settle thingsHebrews 13:4
King James Version
4 Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.
What?I personally believe Mary was a pure heart woman with good intentions. She would have to be to keep Jesus in check. But sinless. Unlikely. Its possible she was almost sinless at one point but started sinning later in life. Its possible to live some days where we do not sin at all. I have done it. But I also believe that God the Father, being born by the Holy Spirit and knowing Himself to be eternal with the Father at an extremely early age would of motivated Jesus to stay pure. People who own something tend not to play around with something valuable. We are valuable to Jesus as God as humans.
I would comment on this if I understood what you said.I personally believe Mary was a pure heart woman with good intentions. She would have to be to keep Jesus in check. But sinless. Unlikely. Its possible she was almost sinless at one point but started sinning later in life. Its possible to live some days where we do not sin at all. I have done it. But I also believe that God the Father, being born by the Holy Spirit and knowing Himself to be eternal with the Father at an extremely early age would of motivated Jesus to stay pure. People who own something tend not to play around with something valuable. We are valuable to Jesus as God as humans.
Well... for starters there is Roman's 3:23 "For ALL have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God."
Note it does not say, "all have sinned except Mary over there".
Secondly, for Christ to defeat sin, He had to be born of the flesh. To be born of someone who is sinless defeat the purpose, as they would not be from the line of Adam, or even human for that matter.
Misunderstanding? Or misinterpretation based on a false doctrine?IX. Misunderstanding about Romans 3:23 (“All have sinned”)
Rom. 3:23 – Some Protestants use this verse “all have sinned” in an attempt to prove that Mary was also with sin. But “all have sinned ” only means that all are subject to original sin. Mary was spared from original sin by God, not herself. The popular analogy is God let us fall in the mud puddle, and cleaned us up afterward through baptism. In Mary’s case, God did not let her enter the mud puddle.
Sin is the only cause of death in the human race…..whoever has died, did so from the results of sin….not just because of their actions, but because of the “sin” every single one of us has inherited from Adam. (Rom 5:12) It is in our DNA.Rom. 3:23 – “all have sinned” also refers only to those able to commit sin. This is not everyone. For example, infants, the retarded, and the senile cannot sin.
No, Jesus was not an exception to that rule because he did not descend from Adam….Mary did.Rom. 3:23 – finally, “all have sinned,” but Jesus must be an exception to this rule. This means that Mary can be an exception as well. Note that the Greek word for all is “pantes.”
Where does it say that Enoch and Elijah were taken to heaven?1 Cor. 15:22 – in Adam all (“pantes”) have died, and in Christ all (“pantes”) shall live. This proves that “all” does not mean “every single one.” This is because not all have died (such as Enoch and Elijah who were taken up to heaven), and not all will go to heaven (because Jesus said so).
No one twists scripture more than those who want it to say what it never did.Rom. 5:12 – Paul says that death spread to all (“pantes”) men. Again, this proves that “all” does not mean “every single one” because death did not spread to all men (as we have seen with Enoch and Elijah).
A righteous person is not sinless otherwise Jesus would not have come to save them. He did not die for the wicked.Rom. 3:10-11 – Protestants also use this verse to prove that all human beings are sinful and thus Mary must be sinful. But see Psalm 14 which is the basis of the verse.
Psalm 14 – this psalm does not teach that all humans are sinful. It only teaches that, among the wicked, all are sinful. The righteous continue to seek God.
This word in both Hebrew and Greek has a variety of meanings, but taken in the way you have assumed here gives it the same meaning regardless of context. Who can be “good” on the same level as Jehovah? Not even Jesus, as he stated. No human can achieve that level of “goodness”….superlatives apply to God that no humans can ever attain….not even the son in human form….now that is humility.Psalm 53:1-3 – “there is none that does good” expressly refers to those who have fallen away. Those who remain faithful do good, and Jesus calls such faithful people “good.”
Luke 18:19 – Jesus says, “No one is good but God alone.” But then in Matt. 12:35, Jesus also says “The good man out of his good treasure…” So Jesus says no one is good but God, and then calls another person good.
Good grief! Now I’ve heard everything!Rom. 9:11 – God distinguished between Jacob and Esau in the womb, before they sinned. Mary was also distinguished from the rest of humanity in the womb by being spared by God from original sin.
Mary was saved like everybody else born into the human race descended from Adam. She is in heaven now, cringing at what you have done to her….turning her into a goddess and bowing down to her image. Something God finds repugnant. (Ex 20:4-5)Luke 1:47 – Mary calls God her Savior. Some Protestants use this to denigrate Mary. Why? Of course God is Mary’s Savior! She was freed from original sin in the womb (unlike us who are freed from sin outside of the womb), but needed a Savior as much as the rest of humanity.
Here it is again…pure justification based on nothing…..give it up. Only indoctrinated Catholic people will believe the far fetched stories your church continues to tell….Luke 1:48 – Mary calls herself lowly. But any creature is lowly compared to God. For example, in Matt. 11:29, even Jesus says He is lowly in heart. Lowliness is a sign of humility, which is the greatest virtue of holiness, because it allows us to empty ourselves and receive the grace of God to change our sinful lives.
Dave is a godly manIX. Misunderstanding about Romans 3:23 (“All have sinned”)
Rom. 3:23 – Some Protestants use this verse “all have sinned” in an attempt to prove that Mary was also with sin. But “all have sinned ” only means that all are subject to original sin. Mary was spared from original sin by God, not herself. The popular analogy is God let us fall in the mud puddle, and cleaned us up afterward through baptism. In Mary’s case, God did not let her enter the mud puddle.
Rom. 3:23 – “all have sinned” also refers only to those able to commit sin. This is not everyone. For example, infants, the retarded, and the senile cannot sin.
Rom. 3:23 – finally, “all have sinned,” but Jesus must be an exception to this rule. This means that Mary can be an exception as well. Note that the Greek word for all is “pantes.”
1 Cor. 15:22 – in Adam all (“pantes”) have died, and in Christ all (“pantes”) shall live. This proves that “all” does not mean “every single one.” This is because not all have died (such as Enoch and Elijah who were taken up to heaven), and not all will go to heaven (because Jesus said so).
Rom. 5:12 – Paul says that death spread to all (“pantes”) men. Again, this proves that “all” does not mean “every single one” because death did not spread to all men (as we have seen with Enoch and Elijah).
Rom. 5:19 – here Paul says “many (not all) were made sinners.” Paul uses “polloi,” not “pantes.” Is Paul contradicting what he said in Rom. 3:23? Of course not. Paul means that all are subject to original sin, but not all reject God.
Rom. 3:10-11 – Protestants also use this verse to prove that all human beings are sinful and thus Mary must be sinful. But see Psalm 14 which is the basis of the verse.
Psalm 14 – this psalm does not teach that all humans are sinful. It only teaches that, among the wicked, all are sinful. The righteous continue to seek God.
Psalm 53:1-3 – “there is none that does good” expressly refers to those who have fallen away. Those who remain faithful do good, and Jesus calls such faithful people “good.”
Luke 18:19 – Jesus says, “No one is good but God alone.” But then in Matt. 12:35, Jesus also says “The good man out of his good treasure…” So Jesus says no one is good but God, and then calls another person good.
Rom. 9:11 – God distinguished between Jacob and Esau in the womb, before they sinned. Mary was also distinguished from the rest of humanity in the womb by being spared by God from original sin.
Luke 1:47 – Mary calls God her Savior. Some Protestants use this to denigrate Mary. Why? Of course God is Mary’s Savior! She was freed from original sin in the womb (unlike us who are freed from sin outside of the womb), but needed a Savior as much as the rest of humanity.
Luke 1:48 – Mary calls herself lowly. But any creature is lowly compared to God. For example, in Matt. 11:29, even Jesus says He is lowly in heart. Lowliness is a sign of humility, which is the greatest virtue of holiness, because it allows us to empty ourselves and receive the grace of God to change our sinful lives.