Given that this same fact is given in a number of places, stated in a number of ways, I think we can be clear on this point.
Much love!
The Case for the Sinless Ever-Virgin Mary.
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Much love!
I think we are the ones who tend to use sloppy speech, not God. We shouldn't, in my opinion, assume that God is as imprecise with language as we are.
Much love!
Permanent comes from the "perfect tense" of the word. An action done with enduring effect. The new bell is not yet rung, it is an unrung bell. Then someone rings is. Now it is a rung bell, and it will never again be an unrung bell. That's the idea behind the perfect tense.
But there is nothing in the passage including the grammar that indicates when Mary was so favored. Certainly nothing that leads us to her conception.
Much love!
Fair point. But translators, being human, can be quite imprecise. How we arrived at "full of grace" from kecharitomene -- I guess the Latin Vulgate's "gratia plena" is the source -- is a matter of interpretation subject to human imprecision. We could as easily come away with "highly favored" as our translation (a la King James Version).
So which English translation says 'Mary was without sin'? It clearly says that about Jesus.
Hebrews 4:15 (NKJV)
15 For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.
1 Peter 2:21-22 (NKJV)
21 For to this you were called, because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that you should follow His steps:
22 "Who committed no sin, Nor was deceit found in His mouth";
I noticed you said exactly the same thing. This is one of the debates you will always find on any Christian forum. They can't see how they are being deceived by those that lead and teach them and the sad thing is they miss the best part which is the saving grace of Jesus to those who are born again.
He's just making these assumptions of me, that I'm just looking at an English translation, for instance. He's got the right sense of the grammar, past event, permanent effect, nominative form, all correct, but nothing about Mary's conception, nor does the grammar support that conclusion. It simply doesn't, and to say it means that is purely adding to Scripture to fit one's preconceived ideas.
Much love!
Nobody will ever make Catholics see things differently. The only way for them to see the truth is if God opens their eyes. Our church fellowship had a lovely couple of ex Catholics who have now gone to be with Jesus and when they told their priest they were leaving and why - that they had found Jesus - the priest said he wished he could go with them. But I suppose he just kept on preaching the Catholic false doctrines.
I'm fully expecting soon many "Mary apparitions" telling all of us that the road to Christ is through Catholicism. And I'm afraid many will believe it.
We can go directly to Christ. That is what He says. He is never bothered by our requests--He needs no mother or St. Somebody praying to Him for us. We can pray for one another, but we never need an intercessor between Christ and ourselves.
We can go directly to Christ. That is what He says. He is never bothered by our requests--He needs no mother or St. Somebody praying to Him for us. We can pray for one another, but we never need an intercessor between Christ and ourselves.
I said we pray to God. I also said we ask others to join us in our prayer intentions to God on our or another's behalf, just as you do, which is called intercessory prayer. The only difference between protestants and Catholics regarding the latter is they dont ask certain people, like Mary, the Apostles, etc., to pray for this or that to God for them or another.
Jesus was God Incarnate, but also fully human, suspectible to the temptations if sin, and through His will in cooperation with God the Father's help, He resisted sin. He was a human exception to the "all have sinned," and there's no scriptural verse that prohibits the exception to applying to anyone else, including Mary.
Jesus was God Incarnate, but also fully human, suspectible to the temptations if sin, and through His will in cooperation with God the Father's help, He resisted sin. He was a human exception, and there's no scriptural verse that prohibits the exception to applying to anyone else, including Mary, the Mother of God Incarnate.
Scripture does say it, just not the way you want, and there's more than one way to something.
Exactly, We, the true church, are a Royal Priesthood. We can approach the throne of grace with confidence. We can go straight to God with our prayers because Christ's death tore apart the curtain that separated us.
Well please point me to it as I never saw it before. No Greek or odd translations, in plain, straight English where does it say Mary was sinless? As I have only ever seen where it says one man/human was without sin and that was Jesus. If God wanted us to know that Mary was born sinless he would have clearly told us so. just as He plainly tells us about Jesus. For Mary to have been without sin she too would have had to be as a result of conception by the Holy Spirit and that just isn't the case. I know the bible says she was full of grace but then so am I and all born again Christians. I revere her as the mother of my Saviour but she was only made free of sin by Jesus just as we all are who are born again.
Luke 1:5-6,
5 In the time of Herod king of Judea there was a priest named Zechariah, who belonged to the priestly division of Abijah; his wife Elizabeth was also a descendant of Aaron. 6 Both of them were righteous in the sight of God, observing all the Lord’s commands and decrees blamelessly.
@Pearl, it was Zechariah and Elizabeth, maybe my memory was not so correct.
5 In the time of Herod king of Judea there was a priest named Zechariah, who belonged to the priestly division of Abijah; his wife Elizabeth was also a descendant of Aaron. 6 Both of them were righteous in the sight of God, observing all the Lord’s commands and decrees blamelessly.
@Pearl, it was Zechariah and Elizabeth, maybe my memory was not so correct.
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