JesusIsFaithful
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- Feb 24, 2015
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JIF,
That's not what I find in 1 Cor 14. We know that 'For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit' (1 Cor 14:2 NIV).
Bear with me as I pray the Lord will help you discern what is actually being said. The reason for the pause is that John 16:13 dictates a limitation on the Holy Spirit and that is He can only speak what He hears.
John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
And so from that truth, we need His wisdom to understand how Paul is writing in those days, because the Spirit would not speak mysteries to God.
We see another verse necessary for discernment in that same chapter in 1 Corinthians 14 to compare with verse 2.
1 Corinthians 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God..
Now as contrary as the boldened part of that verse is to 39 below...
1 Corinthians 14:39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues...
We certainly need His wisdom to understand what Paul is conveying here in verse 28 and mayhap, by His grace & His help, we can understand verse 2 better.
Okay.. verse 28 is about recognizing when someone is speaking himself and not by the Holy Spirit when it is not being interpreted. This is the telltale sign to recognize a foreigner speaking out of order. That is why he can be told to be silent in the church. This also a telltale sign that tongues are to come with interpretation, because if he was speaking as manifested by the Holy Spirit, who is Paul to instruct that he be silenced in the church? Paul signified that because he speaks to himself and to God is inferring that the speaker knos what he is saying as God does.
Now to verse 2 in context. Most readers are remiss in faling to see the context of verse 2 when it is about exhorting believers that when they seek spiritual gifts, they were to seek the gift of prophesy over all spiritual gifts in verse 1 and then Paul began to explain why by cpmparing the singular gift of prophesy against the singular gift of tongues. This was not about sharing how good each of those two gifts are, but why prophesy is better than tongues and it is missed by most readers when Paul explained throughout that chapter that tongue is not a stand alone gift which is why the gift of prophesy is better.
So in verse 2 when addressing the gift of tongues as one that speakss to God, Paul is meaning that although the tongue speaker is uttering mysteries, as heard by mortal men, God understands what he is saying. It is not a testimony that the tongue speaker is speaking to God or praying to God but God understands what He is saying, but others do not which is why tongues has to come with interpretation. That is what Paul was trying to explain in verse 2 but wisdom & discernment from Him is needed here since the topic began in verse 1 and Paul was comparing the two gifts separately to show why the gift of prophesy is better because tongues has to come with interpretation as repeated throughout that chapter.
Not once did Paul testified that when it comes without interpretation, it is prayer time for the Holy Spirit. Indeed, it can never be because of John 16:13. The Holy Spirit has intercessions but He cannot utter them to God when He can only speak what He hears and so Anpther is needed and that is the Son f God at that throne of grace serving as our only Mediator in giving our intercessions and the Spirit's unspeakable intercessions by knowing His mind to God the Father as stated in Romans 8:26-27.
Paul gave the bottomline on tongues in verses 20-22 and that it was of other men's lips to speak unto the people. That is all. The Holy Spirit cannot turn it around and use it as a form of prayer language when He can only speak what He hears. The Holy Spirit cannot cease to be the Spirit of Christ or take time out and speak His own words to us or to God.
So, the person who has been given the supernatural gift of tongues by the Spirit, is using it to 'not speak to people but to God'. I use it as part of my prayer language when talking with the Lord in my private devotions. 1 Cor 14:2 confirms that this is what should happen for those given this gift.
There is further teaching on this in 1 Cor 14:14-15 (NIV):
For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful. 15 So what shall I do? I will pray with my spirit, but I will also pray with my understanding; I will sing with my spirit, but I will also sing with my understanding.
So the Christian who has been given the gift of tongues has the ability to pray both in tongues ('my spirit prays') and with the mind (i.e. in English). This is not the language of apostasy but of the Holy Spirit.
Now I put this question to you. By your understanding, who is praying when speaking in tongues? You or the Holy Spirit? It cannot be both. It is either the Holy Spirit that is praying or you are praying.
Paul says it is his spirit that is praying. For what? That another believer will interpret what he is saying; ( another indication that tongues has to come wth interpretation ) So Paul was instructing tongue speakers that while the Holy Spirit is manifesting tongues, they are to pray that the Holy Spirit will lead another to interpret that tongue, otherwise it is unfruitful to the tongue speaker as Paul even testified regards to himself when speaking in tongues.
So Paul was not really saying that believers can use tongues to pray to God, now was he?
Then there is a further emphasis in 1 Cor 14:27-28 (NIV):
If anyone speaks in a tongue [when you come together in a church gathering - see v. 26], two – or at the most three – should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret. 28 If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet in the church and speak to himself and to God.
So a person can speak to himself [and herself] and God in tongues in the church gathering if there is no interpreter.
How is that when they are told to be quiet? Do you think you can hear the pastor from the pulpit if everyone around yu spoke in tongues, including yourself? Talk about confusion and chaos coming about. Paul certainly addressed that as not happening.
1 Corinthians 14:23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?
As for wmoen speaking in tongues, it runs against the commandment of the Lord that women are to be silent in the churches. Another telltale sign that it is not the Holy Spirit manifesting that tongues as breaking the Lord's own commandment for them to be silent in the church.
Paul's concluding message of 1 Cor 14:39-40 (NIV) is:
Therefore, my brothers and sisters, be eager to prophesy, and do not forbid speaking in tongues. 40 But everything should be done in a fitting and orderly way.
The supernatural gift of tongues comes from the same source that Paul exhorted, 'do not forbid speaking in tongues' and the source of this gift is God himself (1 Cor 12:27-31).
The gift of tongues does not come from apostasy for Christian people. It comes from the Holy Spirit of God. Yes, there are people in the occult or other religions that use this kind of language, but that doesn't make the genuine gift of the Spirit, speaking in tongues, fake.
One faulty Chevvy doesn't make every Chevvy a fraud.
Oz
Isaah 8:19 testify of the other source. 1 Timothy 4:1-2 testify of the falling away from the faith when believers seek to receive the Holy Spirit after a sign as standing apart from their salvation... which I say is the apostasy since there can be no other receiving of the Holy Spirit apart from salvation.