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Mathew 8:11
No,it's the direction I would need to travel to take my place at the feast in the kingdom of heaven.
Where does it say He would return to rule over His kingdom? Scripture says He will deliver the kingdom He rules over now to the Father when He returns at the end of the age (1 Cor 15:22-24, Matt 13:40-43). According to Ephesians 1:19-22 He received His kingdom by way of His resurrection and ascension to the right hand of the Father. He rules over His kingdom now. Do you deny that His people are in His kingdom now?
Because that will be the time when He will rid the world of sin and death forever. His followers will be rewarded with our bodies being changed to being immortal and we will inherit the eternal new heavens and new earth. Peter said that is what we should be looking forward to in accordance with the fulfillment of the promise of Christ's second coming (2 Peter 3:13).
We don't yet have immortal bodies and there is still sin and death on the earth.
Believers with immortal bodies living on the new earth for eternity.
Of course you do.
All of His enemies who exist right now are under His feet or else the following passage would not be true:
You don't understand it correctly. The subjugation of enemies will consist of physically destroying His living enemies when Jesus returns and then having all of God's enemies from all-time cast into the lake of fire for eternity.
What work would that be exactly?
I thought those coming from the East and west represented the gentiles feasting with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
That is not meant to be taken literally as if you will need to literally travel east to get to the kingdom of heaven. Jesus said that right after a Roman centurion displayed his faith in Jesus by saying that he believed Jesus could heal his servant from where He was without even having to go to where he was. Jesus was amazed at the centurion's faith and he then indicated that people from all over the world from the east to the west would be in the kingdom of heaven and not just from Israel, as many who were there listening to Him thought.
I asked him that question because that’s a pretty common Freemason saying.
David that verse is about the children of the kingdom that were cast into outer darkness because they rejected Christ and weren’t allowed into the kingdom of heaven that comes without observance.
The parable is associated with Jesus' instructions concerning his extended delay. He goes away to receive a kingdom; he returns to rule over his kingdom and when he returns, he rewards those who obeyed him and kept the faith while they waited.
Delivering the kingdom to the Father does not happen immediately upon his return. Rather, He delivers the kingdom to the Father AFTER he has conquered and subdued his enemies.
No. Not at all.
The point is his return indicates possession of the kingdom. He goes away to receive a kingdom, and he begins to rule when he returns.
Right. But after that, Jesus will subdue his enemies and rule over them before he hands them over to the Father. That takes time, and he needs to be present to do that.
Agreed, the question at hand is about his status. We both acknowledge that he has already been granted full authority. However, as he mentions, he needs to leave to receive a kingdom. This indicates to me that there is a difference between being granted authority and the actions involved in assuming power and overcoming adversaries.
Wouldn't the fulness of his kingdom also include the subjugation of his enemies?
You can't have it both ways. Either his enemies are subjugated now -- under his feet, or they will subjugated later -- destroyed. Do you see the problem with your view?
Doing battle with the armies that have come against Israel -- for one.
Same issue as before. You can't have it both ways.
Yes.
These are the occupants of the kingdom of heaven when Christ comes on the day of the Lord.They are cast out of the kingdom for their disbelief.They also worship the beast and it's image and take it's mark.
This is another good point. You and I are members of a spiritual kingdom and we serve the Lord wherever in the world the Lord has planted us. But Jesus is speaking about a time when some people will travel to a new location to feast with Abraham etc.
It's important to remember that the Bible was not written in English. We need to use Hebrew and Greek resources at times to help us understand what was actually written in scripture. Revelation 12:12 is not referring to a literally short amount of time.
That's your opinion, but it does not say that Satan is bound from taking his wrath out on people. It says he is bound from deceiving the "ethnos" (people). Obviously, amils have a different understanding of what that means than premils, but the point is that he is not bound from persecuting believers.
You clearly are not looking closely at what it says Satan is bound from doing, which does not include taking his wrath out on people.
It's not a problem for Amil at all. Your problem is that you don't understand Amil even after all these years. So, you end up making strawman arguments all the time. Amils do not equate the short time of Revelation 12:12 with the little season of Revelation 20:3, so your arguments do not apply to what we actually believe.
We don't apply Rev 12:12 to his loosening, so why even waste time talking about that?
Now we need to address the timing of Satan and his angels being cast out of heaven. It happened long ago already.
Again, it doesn't say he is bound from taking out his wrath on people. Your literal understanding of his binding makes it pretty much impossible for you to understand Amil since we don't see it as a case of him being completely incapacitated, but rather that his binding gave authority to the church to preach God's word and the gospel of Christ through the power of the Holy Spirit to places that previously had "no hope" and were "without God in the world" (Eph 2:11-12) because of being in slavery to the fear of death (Heb 2:15). But, by his death Jesus took the power of death away from Satan (Heb 2:14-15) because He came to destroy the works of the devil (1 John 3:8).
No, it can't work no matter how YOU look at it, but you don't look at it like we look at it. You have decided that Revelation 20 should be interpreted literally, but you somehow also decide that passages like Matthew 24:15-21 and 2 Peter 3:10-12 should not be interpreted literally. It doesn't make any sense to me.
Where do you see it depicting him as not having great wrath at that time?
Yes.
I didn't say that it does. I believe Jesus was talking about the eternal kingdom on the new earth in that passage and He indicated that it's not just believing Israelites who will be there, but believers from everywhere. He was basically telling them that the Gentiles would be saved and have eternal life as well there without spelling it out for them. He only hinted at the salvation of the Gentiles without ever spelling it out like when He said in John 10:16 "other sheep I have, which are not of this fold". So, He was indicating that Gentiles too will inherit eternal life and unbelievers will be cast out where there is weeping and gnashing of teeth which is something He indicates will happen at the end of the age (Matt 13:40-43) which is when He will come again (Matt 24:3).
Yes ,a specific area of land that is promised to them who belong to Christ.Abraham will live there .That is where the kingdom is.
You believe Jesus was in bondage because he was in Jerusalem,?
