Wick Stick
Well-Known Member
Well then Jesus and His apostles weren't Jewish monotheists, because that's how they saw itHave you picked up yet from what I’ve written that the answer from the perspective of Jewish monotheism is no?
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Well then Jesus and His apostles weren't Jewish monotheists, because that's how they saw itHave you picked up yet from what I’ve written that the answer from the perspective of Jewish monotheism is no?
Well then Jesus and His apostles weren't Jewish monotheists, because that's how they saw it
A sect, yes. 1st century Judaism had multiple sects that disagreed about more things than they agreed on. Judaism CELEBRATES that ability to disagree and debate the finer points of the Law and Prophets.The church began as a sect of Judaism. Jesus and the apostles were Jewish monotheists. You aren’t reading scripture like a Jewish monotheist does. That will give you a different perspective on the matter.
A sect, yes. 1st century Judaism had multiple sects that disagreed about more things than they agreed on. Judaism CELEBRATES that ability to disagree and debate the finer points of the Law and Prophets.
The WAY had significant disagreement with Jewish Orthodoxy, which evolved out of the Pharisee thought. I hope your concept of Jewish monotheism isn't built out of Jewish Orthodoxy.
I'm quite sure that the New Testament authors read, "the Word of the Lord came to me" throughout Jeremiah's book as being a divine visitation. That doesn't mean they thought of it in Trinitarian terms; they almost certainly didn't. But still a divine visitation
So in practical terms, when "the Word of the LORD came to Jeremiah" in the Old Testament, who do you see as the agent? Is there really an agent?This thread is about how Jewish monotheism understands “divine visitation” -> agency.
That accounts for our difference in understanding.
You will find a great deal of agreement with unitarians, binitarians and trinitarians on the subject.
Jewish monotheism is unique.
So in practical terms, when "the Word of the LORD came to Jeremiah" in the Old Testament, who do you see as the agent? Is there really an agent?
I used worst case example to make the point. I've not called you evil. Again, you represent someone's words as other than what they said. That's what I'm talking about. I told you specifically my complaint against you, not that I call you an evil man, rather, I say that you change and mis-use things people say. And here is yet another example.You’re the one who is calling me evil. You’ll have to answer for it, but not to me.
I used worst case example to make the point. I've not called you evil. Again, you represent someone's words as other than what they said. That's what I'm talking about. I told you specifically my complaint against you, not that I call you an evil man, rather, I say that you change and mis-use things people say. And here is yet another example.
Much love!
So then... no agent?”The Word of the Lord” isn’t a person. “The Word of the Lord” is the davar, the self-expression or utterance of Yahweh.
Jeremiah is a prophet. Prophets, by definition, are persons who aren’t God himself. If Jeremiah acts and speaks as if he were Yahweh himself then he is acting and speaking as God’s shaliah. If Jeremiah acts and speaks on his own then he isn’t acting and speaking as God’s shaliah.
So then... no agent?