Philip James
Well-Known Member
Why is that? Curious.
I honestly don't know.
I have never given it much thought. I cant imagine someone not wanting to receive at least once a year..
I'll see if i can find out for you.
Peace!
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Why is that? Curious.
I appreciate that. As I said I'm simply curious.I honestly don't know.
I have never given it much thought. I cant imagine someone not wanting to receive at least once a year..
I'll see if i can find out for you.
Peace!
I appreciate that. As I said I'm simply curious.
This was the only thing I could find in that article that gives an actual reason for an annual minimum.I found this:
"The Church supports the sacramental life of those who may have a scrupulous fear of unworthiness to receive Our Lord in the Holy Eucharist and of those in mortal or serious sin whose laxity is leading them away from the sacraments."
Here: You Need to Know about This Easter Requirement
'The scrupulous fear of unworthiness' i can understand.
As one becomes more aware of just WHO they are approaching to receive, it can be overwhelming...
But 'perfect love casts out all fear' and so the love of Christ frees us to boldly approach the throne of Grace..
Peace!
This was the only thing I could find in that article that gives an actual reason for an annual minimum.
"To once a year go to sacramental confession and receive Holy Communion at Easter Season (or some other time if need be) is to recognize the Church’s role in helping us gain our salvation."
It goes on to say . . .
"The Church wisely employs a minimum obligation—the Easter Duty— as a merciful means to help the faithful to stay on their sacramental path toward resurrection in Christ."
But even this doesn't seem to be a reason why this is so, that is, once yearly. Why not twice yearly? Why not every other year? You can fulfill the duty at other times of the year if necessary, so the Paschal timing is preference but not requirement.
There was a statement that the Easter Duty is a means by which we are assured of meeting the minimum sacramental requirement, but it didn't say what makes that a minimum. Best I can tell it's simply what someone thought best as a safety net, does that sound right?
Thank you for finding this for me!
Much love!
Well thank you so very much!Now those may seem like reasonable pastoral applications of that rule, but im not sure thats why it was implemented..
It seems to come from a canon passed at the 4th lateran council and Innocent III.
Im going to try and dig up English translations of documents from that council to see if they say something about it.
I'll update you if i find anything.
Peace!
This will be fun for me. I will update you
BTW I like your new avatar, when I saw it the first thing that popped into mind was Joyful Joyful We Adore Thee!I found an english translation of the final document of lateran iv here:
Fourth Lateran Council : 1215 Council Fathers - Papal Encyclicals
Canon 21 is the one that establishes this discipline, but there is no info on why it was done. Gonna have to do more digging ;)
Peace!
bc i know the wolves will rush in as soon as i leave, not sparing the flock i betWell thank you so very much!
While good natured it seemed a bit arbitrary, so that will be interesting to know if there were some more particular reason.
Much love!
BTW I like your new avatar, when I saw it the first thing that popped into mind was Joyful Joyful We Adore Thee!
Much love!
Would any other person who believes in the eucharist catholic or non catholic like to explain to me why all the things promised in John 6 are not given to EVERYONE who eats?
Let’s research thisHello EG,
Paul makes it clear in 1cor 11 that those who partake unworthily eat and drink condemnation on themselves,
But for those who partake worthily, why would you suggest they don't receive all of Jesus' promises?
Peace be with you!
Perspective. In John 6 Jesus is speaking of the food He would give us. In 1Cor 11 Paul is speaking of the food Jesus did give us.Let’s research this
let’s start With what Jesus said in John 6
manna you ate often
Jesus said don’t work for something like that but for food which ENDURES to eternal life, which HE will give us.
tell us why this differs that what is done in 1 cor 11
peace to you also
Perspective. In John 6 Jesus is speaking of the food He would give us. In 1Cor 11 Paul is speaking of the food Jesus did give us.
Thank you!
Christ is risen!
Alleluia!
Hi EG,I disagree
john 6 is food Jesus gave us, and said it will endure forever
1 cor 12 is food a priest of someone else gives us, and says take often
anyway, can you please respond to th difference between food which endures forever, (John 6) and a food which does not endure forever? (1 cor)
Thank you, and bless you
Hi EG,I disagree
john 6 is food Jesus gave us, and said it will endure forever
1 cor 12 is food a priest of someone else gives us, and says take often
anyway, can you please respond to th difference between food which endures forever, (John 6) and a food which does not endure forever? (1 cor)
Thank you, and bless you
Hi EG,
I am trying to understand your interpretation of John 6. Where does it say that that the food Jesus gave us (past tense) will endure forever?
Respectfully, Mary
Yes 11 sorryHi EG,
I think you meant 1 Cor 11 when speaking of “food a priest of someone else gives us”?
The reason i ask is so I can have clarification before researching this more.
1 cor 12 is food a priest of someone else gives us, and says take