John 1:1 EXPOSING the JWs LIES

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DavidB

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I have already shown from the Greek that monogenes never means only begotten

Now you prove that I wrong
I have shown you clearly that Strong’s Concordance and the NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon disagree with you and a little research shows that the majority of Bible translations also disagree with you. Oh the uncertainty and confusion that surrounds the trinity.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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I have shown you clearly that Strong’s Concordance and the NAS New Testament Greek Lexicon disagree with you and a little research shows that the majority of Bible translations also disagree with you. Oh the uncertainty and confusion that surrounds the trinity.

John writes, "μονογενής", which means:

"only...Also unique (in kind) of someth. that it the only example of its category...'unique and alone'" (W F Ardnt and F W Gingrich; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.529)

"the only member of am kin or kind: hence, generally, only, single, unique" (H G Liddell and R Scott; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.1144. Revised Edition)

"μονογενὴς is literally “one of a kind,” “only,” “unique” (unicus), not “only-begotten,” which would be μονογέννητος, (unigenitus), and is common in the LXX in this sense" (J H Moulton & G Milligan; Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament. pp. 416-417)

“But the word can also be used more generally without ref. to derivation in the sense of “unique,” “unparalleled,” “incomparable,”” (Gerhard Kittel; Theological Dictionary of the New Testament)

IF John wished to say "only begotten", then he would have used the correct Greek word, "μονογέννητος"

You are trying to force your theology, as some others do on here, into what the Bible actually teaches.

You will also notice, that the original NASB reads "only", and not "only begotten" Bible Gateway passage: John 1 - New American Standard Bible
 

DavidB

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John writes, "μονογενής", which means:

"only...Also unique (in kind) of someth. that it the only example of its category...'unique and alone'" (W F Ardnt and F W Gingrich; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.529)

"the only member of am kin or kind: hence, generally, only, single, unique" (H G Liddell and R Scott; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.1144. Revised Edition)

"μονογενὴς is literally “one of a kind,” “only,” “unique” (unicus), not “only-begotten,” which would be μονογέννητος, (unigenitus), and is common in the LXX in this sense" (J H Moulton & G Milligan; Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament. pp. 416-417)

“But the word can also be used more generally without ref. to derivation in the sense of “unique,” “unparalleled,” “incomparable,”” (Gerhard Kittel; Theological Dictionary of the New Testament)

IF John wished to say "only begotten", then he would have used the correct Greek word, "μονογέννητος"

You are trying to force your theology, as some others do on here, into what the Bible actually teaches.

You will also notice, that the original NASB reads "only", and not "only begotten" Bible Gateway passage: John 1 - New American Standard Bible
Congratulations. You have confirmed what I have been saying. Trinitarians do not agree on monogenes. The fact is they also disagree on a large percentage of trinitarian proof texts.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Congratulations. You have confirmed what I have been saying. Trinitarians do not agree on monogenes. The fact is they also disagree on a large percentage of trinitarian proof texts.

whether Trinitarians agree on what the Bible says, is not important, what you should be concerned about, is what the Bible says. It is clear from those who know Greek, that the term "μονογενής", never means "only begotten". This was first used by the Church father Jerome, in his version of the Latin New Testament, the Vulgate, or Common Version, of the 4th century, where he uses the Latin, "unigenitus", which in the Greek is, "μονογέννητος". In the Old Latin, which is from the 2nd century, used the Latin, "unicus", which is the Greek, "μονογενής", from where we get our English "unique". It is best to use what is actually written, rather than try to find "scholars" who agree with what you believe, and quote them, as some do on here.
 

DavidB

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whether Trinitarians agree on what the Bible says, is not important, what you should be concerned about, is what the Bible says. It is clear from those who know Greek, that the term "μονογενής", never means "only begotten". This was first used by the Church father Jerome, in his version of the Latin New Testament, the Vulgate, or Common Version, of the 4th century, where he uses the Latin, "unigenitus", which in the Greek is, "μονογέννητος". In the Old Latin, which is from the 2nd century, used the Latin, "unicus", which is the Greek, "μονογενής", from where we get our English "unique". It is best to use what is actually written, rather than try to find "scholars" who agree with what you believe, and quote them, as some do on here.
“It is clear that those who know Greek”
You wish that were clear. What is clear is that for you, only those who agree with you know Greek. It is obvious why you want to get away from ginomai. Here is what else is clear. Whether it is best translated as begotten or unique, Jesus is God’s Son. Father and Son. Everyone knows, or should know, what that means. Jesus’ Father is my Father. Jesus’ God is my God. The Father is “the only true God” just as Jesus said. God is the head of Christ just as Christ is head of man. It really is just that simple. That is what the Bible says.
 
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