Jesus and Paul both taught that Christ's kingdom will be delivered to the Father when Jesus comes again and not 1,000+ years later as Premillennialists believe.
Here is what Paul wrote about this...
1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
If we look at this objectively while putting aside any doctrinal bias we might have, we can see here that Paul does not indicate in any way, shape or form that there is any time, or at least no significant amount of time like 1,000+ years, between Christ's second coming and the end when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father.
Premills try to insert 1,000+ years between His coming and the end. If that was going to happen then why did Paul not even hint at such a thing? I believe he would have if that was going to happen. I certainly trust Paul to have known what he was talking about much more than any Premill, so I'm going with Paul here. He never taught anything about a supposed future earthly kingdom.
I'm sure Paul was familiar with what Jesus said in the following passage, so that's why he knew that the end (of the world/age) will come when Jesus comes.
Matthew 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world. 41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; 42 And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. 43 Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear.
Jesus will return at the end of the world/age (Greek: aion), which is what is indicated in Matthew 24:3 when He was asked about the sign of His coming and the end of the world/age, implying that His coming would occur at the end of the age. Notice what Jesus said will happen at the end of this age. He said at that time "Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father.". The kingdom of their Father. Why does Jesus call it that? Because He will have delivered the kingdom to the Father at that point. Why else? So, this shows that He delivers the kingdom to the Father at the end of the age when He returns.
Here is what Paul wrote about this...
1 Corinthians 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
If we look at this objectively while putting aside any doctrinal bias we might have, we can see here that Paul does not indicate in any way, shape or form that there is any time, or at least no significant amount of time like 1,000+ years, between Christ's second coming and the end when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father.
Premills try to insert 1,000+ years between His coming and the end. If that was going to happen then why did Paul not even hint at such a thing? I believe he would have if that was going to happen. I certainly trust Paul to have known what he was talking about much more than any Premill, so I'm going with Paul here. He never taught anything about a supposed future earthly kingdom.
I'm sure Paul was familiar with what Jesus said in the following passage, so that's why he knew that the end (of the world/age) will come when Jesus comes.
Matthew 13:40 As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world. 41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; 42 And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. 43 Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear.
Jesus will return at the end of the world/age (Greek: aion), which is what is indicated in Matthew 24:3 when He was asked about the sign of His coming and the end of the world/age, implying that His coming would occur at the end of the age. Notice what Jesus said will happen at the end of this age. He said at that time "Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father.". The kingdom of their Father. Why does Jesus call it that? Because He will have delivered the kingdom to the Father at that point. Why else? So, this shows that He delivers the kingdom to the Father at the end of the age when He returns.