Amil, Premil, poster list

[Davidpt]

Well, I think the thousand years was the time from the cross to 70AD where Satan was bound from exercising his right to destroy Jerusalem.
There are others who place the millennium from the time of Solomon to the cross, and I’ve also seen where some have equated Christ’ resurrection with the millennium, meaning they both started and ended with His resurrection, they are one and the same.

You can lump everyone who’s not Premil into one category but it might not be as helpful or beneficial.

That clearly makes you Amil then. It doesn't matter when you think the millennium ended. All Amils think the millennium ends eventually. You just happen to think it already ended. What makes your position bizarre though, is that you have a very short period of time meaning the same thing as a very long period of time. 40 years is a short period of time. A thousand years isn't. It's one thing to insist that a thousand years can mean more than a thousand years, but it's another thing altogether to insist it can mean less than a thousand years. That makes zero sense that a thousand years could be meaning a literal 40 years, meaning from the cross to 70 AD, thus a literal 40 years.

Is your position that satan's little season is longer in length than the thousand years are? You do realize that after the thousand years expire we are then in satan's little season until satan is cast into the LOF? Pretty certain that hasn't happened yet. Therefore, if you are correct about the thousand years, that means you have everything entirely backwards.

You have a long period of time involving a short period of time. You have a thousand years involving a literal 40 years. Then you have a short period of time, satan's little season, involving a long period of time, meaning the past 2000 years, keeping in mind, once satan's little season begins it doesn't end until satan is cast into the LOF.


As to the OP, @Douggg can add me as a Premil.

 

[grafted branch]

19 After a long time the lord of those servants cometh, and reckoneth with them.

You think Jesus came back in 70 AD, but I would not consider 37 years to be "a long time" and certainly not an amount of time that I think could be figuratively represented by "a thousand years".

He came back when the servants were still alive, so yea 37 years was a long time.

 

[grafted branch]

Is your position that satan's little season is longer in length than the thousand years are?

No, I think Satan’s little season ended in the first century. We are living after the millennium and after Satan’s little season.

John wrote to the circumcision and the old covenant ended in 70AD. The next event for the circumcision will be the GWT, which hasn’t happened yet.

 

[Davidpt]

I view Pre-mil as just a rapture before any tribulation. AMill is the Millennium now.
Both are error and confusion. It is a bad mistake to believe either of them.

If one believes that the thousand years precede the 2nd coming, that makes that person Amil, and in some cases, it makes the person Postmil.

If one believes that the thousand years follow the 2nd coming, that makes that person Premil.


This is not rocket science then. If your position is that the millennium follows the 2nd coming, that makes you Premil. 'Pre' means to precede something. What is that 'something' that is preceded by something, and what is that 'something' that precedes this 'something'? That 'something is the millennium. The 'something' that precedes the millennium is the 2nd coming.

Don't be like @Douggg per his Anytime rapture view where he can't even admit he is actually Pretrib. Instead of being like him where he can't even admit what he really is, be an adult and admit what you are, that you are Premil.

 

[Davidpt]

No, I think Satan’s little season ended in the first century. We are living after the millennium and after Satan’s little season.

John wrote to the circumcision and the old covenant ended in 70AD. The next event for the circumcision will be the GWT, which hasn’t happened yet.

IOW, your view implies that the following was fulfilled at that time--Revelation 20:7-15, even though you are denying it? After all, how can satan's little season end unless satan is cast into the LOF followed by the GWTJ?

 

[grafted branch]

IOW, your view implies that the following was fulfilled at that time--Revelation 20:7-15, even though you are denying it? After all, how can satan's little season end unless satan is cast into the LOF followed by the GWTJ?

I never said the final judgment was fulfilled. I do think the beast, false prophet, and Satan are currently in the lake of fire as seen in Revelation 20:10, prior to the GWT.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

He came back when the servants were still alive, so yea 37 years was a long time.

A figurative thousand years. Yeah. Okay. No, 37 years is not a long time. You are clearly going to believe whatever you want to believe no matter what evidence to the contrary is presented. So, how long was Satan's little season then? A few hours?

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

No, I think Satan’s little season ended in the first century. We are living after the millennium and after Satan’s little season.

John wrote to the circumcision and the old covenant ended in 70AD. The next event for the circumcision will be the GWT, which hasn’t happened yet.

Where are you getting the idea that there's at least a 1,954 year time period between the end of Satan's little season and the GWT judgment? That is not indicated in the text whatsoever.

 

[TribulationSigns]

No, I think Satan’s little season ended in the first century.

Really? Okay, tell us when did Christ bind Satan for a thousand years according to God?

Rev 20:1-3
(1) And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
(2) And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
(3) And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

 

[grafted branch]

Where are you getting the idea that there's at least a 1,954 year time period between the end of Satan's little season and the GWT judgment? That is not indicated in the text whatsoever.

Well according to Galatians 2:9 there was an agreement made that James, Peter, and John would go to the circumcision. This agreement was never rescinded.

John wrote the book of Revelation to the circumcision, that old covenant system was decaying after the cross and vanished in 70AD. The next event that happens to the circumcision after 70AD is the GWT.

I realize you may be confused confused if you think John wrote to the Gentiles but he didn’t.

 

[grafted branch]

Really? Okay, tell us when did Christ bind Satan for a thousand years according to God?

Satan was bound when all authority was given to Jesus, Matthew 28:18. Satan could no longer exercise the authority he once had.

 

[TribulationSigns]

Satan was bound when all authority was given to Jesus, Matthew 28:18. Satan could no longer exercise the authority he once had.

When was that exactly? What day, month and year?

 

[grafted branch]

When was that exactly? What day, month and year?

According to Biblehub timeline it puts Matthew 28 at 30 AD. They don’t have the day or month, I’m not sure why that would really matter anyway. If it was important the Bible would have given us that date.

 

[TribulationSigns]

According to Biblehub timeline it puts Matthew 28 at 30 AD. They don’t have the day or month, I’m not sure why that would really matter anyway. If it was important the Bible would have given us that date.

Biblehub? Not recommended.

Okay, for example, so you are saying that Christ bound Satan and placed him into a bottomless pit in 28AD for a thousand years. Then 42 years later, Satan was loosened in 70AD to fulfill whatever you believe in your Preterism doctrine? Seriously? Exactly what happened during that 42-year span that Satan was in bottomless pit? What does the Bible say...

Rev 20:4-6
(4) And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
(5) But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
(6) Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

How do you understand this to fit your 42 years of interpreation? This is NOT how thousands of years are understood. Do you even know what a ten, hundred or thousand signifies in Scripture?

 

[grafted branch]

Okay, for example, so you are saying that Christ bound Satan and placed him into a bottomless pit in 28AD for a thousand years. Then 42 years later, Satan was loosened in 70AD to fulfill whatever you believe in your Preterism doctrine? Seriously? Exactly what happened during that 42-year span that Satan was in bottomless pit? What does the Bible say...

Satan was bound just after the cross, when all authority was given to Jesus. Jerusalem was slated to be destroyed for allowing sacrifices to resume after the vail was torn. This destruction, as described in Daniel 9:27-27 was delayed by the binding of Satan, which prevented him from fulfilling that prophecy until he was loosed.

This allowed the gospel to get preached in all the world prior to the destruction of Jerusalem. Babylon fell and became the cage of every foul spirit, this is where Satan was for the millennium while the gospel was preached.

When Satan was loosed after the millennium he fulfilled the Daniel 9:26-27 destruction of Jerusalem which was the last act prophesied for the Gentiles. This is when the fullness or fulfillment of the times of the Gentiles happened. Luke 21:22 says that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

Well according to Galatians 2:9 there was an agreement made that James, Peter, and John would go to the circumcision. This agreement was never rescinded.

John wrote the book of Revelation to the circumcision, that old covenant system was decaying after the cross and vanished in 70AD. The next event that happens to the circumcision after 70AD is the GWT.

I realize you may be confused confused if you think John wrote to the Gentiles but he didn’t.

You are terribly mistaken. The book of Revelation is a message from Jesus Christ to His church which consists of Jew and Gentile believers. It's absolutely undeniable that the seven churches in the province of Asia that were specifically addressed in the book contained both Jew and Gentile believers.

What do you think, that the book of John doesn't apply to Gentiles, either? Does John 3:16 only apply to Jews? I'm sure you don't believe that, so why do you think the book of Revelation only applies to the Jews? Your reasoning about all this is terribly flawed.

 

[grafted branch]

You are terribly mistaken. The book of Revelation is a message from Jesus Christ to His church which consists of Jew and Gentile believers. It's absolutely undeniable that the seven churches in the province of Asia that were specifically addressed in the book contained both Jew and Gentile believers.

What do you think, that the book of John doesn't apply to Gentiles, either? Does John 3:16 only apply to Jews? I'm sure you don't believe that, so why do you think the book of Revelation only applies to the Jews? Your reasoning about all this is terribly flawed.

What do you think, that everything written in the Bible is directly applicable to everyone? Are you supposed to bring a sin offering as described in the Old Testament? And what about Acts 15:28-29 where it seemed good to the Holy Spirit that a different burden was placed on the Gentiles than was on the Jews?

All scripture is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: but that doesn’t mean all scripture is directly applicable to everyone.

Of course you’re going to think my reasoning is flawed, it appears you somehow think all scriptures directly pertain to all people, or at the very least you’re having trouble distinguishing who it was written to.

 

[TribulationSigns]

Satan was bound just after the cross, when all authority was given to Jesus.

True.

Jerusalem was slated to be destroyed for allowing sacrifices to resume after the vail was torn.

Huh?!

So in your flawed doctrine of preterism, a physical "Holy" city must be punished for allowing the animal sacrifices to continue after the veil was repaired? Where do you find that in Scripture?!

This destruction, as described in Daniel 9:27-27 was delayed by the binding of Satan, which prevented him from fulfilling that prophecy until he was loosed.

This allowed the gospel to get preached in all the world prior to the destruction of Jerusalem. Babylon fell and became the cage of every foul spirit, this is where Satan was for the millennium while the gospel was preached.

When Satan was loosed after the millennium he fulfilled the Daniel 9:26-27 destruction of Jerusalem which was the last act prophesied for the Gentiles. This is when the fullness or fulfillment of the times of the Gentiles happened. Luke 21:22 says that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

What a nonsense!

 

[grafted branch]

Huh?!

So in your flawed doctrine of preterism, a physical "Holy" city must be punished for allowing the animal sacrifices to continue after the veil was repaired? Where do you find that in Scripture?!

Ok there is a book in the Bible that maybe you’re unaware of but many people look at it when they study eschatology. This book is just after the book of Ezekiel, it’s called Daniel. When you read through it stop at chapter 9 verses 26 and 27. There you will see that for the overspreading of abomination he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation.

That’s where you find it in the scriptures. If you need help finding the book of Daniel you can use Biblehub and just do a search for it. I hope this helps.

 

[Spiritual Israelite]

Ok there is a book in the Bible that maybe you’re unaware of but many people look at it when they study eschatology. This book is just after the book of Ezekiel, it’s called Daniel. When you read through it stop at chapter 9 verses 26 and 27. There you will see that for the overspreading of abomination he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation.

That’s where you find it in the scriptures. If you need help finding the book of Daniel you can use Biblehub and just do a search for it. I hope this helps.

If you think God still considered Jerusalem to be "the holy city" or "the beloved city" (Rev 20:9) in 70 AD, then why did He destroy it? Surely, God would not have destroyed a city that He considered to be holy. That is not reasonable. He would not have done that. No, earthly Jerusalem was the unholy city by then because of its rejection of Christ and that's why God destroyed it.