A serious questions for the Jehovah's Witnesses on these threads.

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Aunty Jane

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There aren't 2 beings called YHWH. He alone is the true God=The Father.
If there was even one categorical statement in the Bible by either God or his Christ, stating that they were equally “Yahweh” and equally "God", there would be no argument......but since every scripture they quote is an abiguous reference to what might seem like proof of a triune god, upon examining the context and comparing with actual categorical statements, we find no support for the Catholic inspired “Godhead”, because there is no such being mentioned in any biblical text.

All the attacks on our brotherhood are diversionary tactics to distract from the fact that they have no scriptural backing for their claims. When they have no defence.....they attack. It’s what defeated humans do.
 
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RR144

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Jesus promised that the elect would have a place “prepared” for them when Jesus returned to heaven. John 14:2-3 ... So why would he prepare a place in heaven for them if he is coming back to the earth in person?
Because Jesus stated, "if I go away ... I will come again. So Jesus prepares the place for them first, than later he returns. Do you actually think Jehovah has mansions in heaven? The universe is God's home or house, and this earth is His footstool. He has one part of his great family on the angelic plane, we don't know how many; he has another part of his family that are seraphim and cherubim, and we don't know much about them. He has other parts of the spiritual family that the apostle Paul seems to refer to, but we don't know what these distinctions are; it's not revealed; but merely that there are different orders or grades of our heavenly Father's family on the spirit plane.

The church is to be on the spirit plane. Then he has also another part of his family of the human kind. Now he's made provisions for all of these different families. He had already made provision for the angels; they have their plane, their status, their condition, assigned to them. So God has provided for mankind; the earth was made for man. But now there's a new thing; Jesus came and called a church, and that church with himself is to constitute a new creation, and there was no place for a new creation; it was to be an entirely new creation. So Jesus, who was the first-born of this new creation, when he ascended up on high left us word that if we would be faithful as his members he would go before us and prepare a place for us, and he tells us what place it will be, that it will be a place in the divine nature. Peter says God has given us exceeding great and precious promises, that by these--by these promises working in us to will and to do God's good pleasure--we might become partakers of the divine nature. All who become partakers of the divine nature will have that place in the Father's mansion that is next to the Father's abode--the Father, the Son, the church, and then all other orders under those.

So he prepares a place for them, but before they can enjoy that place, they have business to attend too, and that is joining the Lord Jesus in reconciling mankind back to God as it was in the garden before the fall, but first they must deal with Satan and his minions, and where is Satan? In the earth's atmosphere, where Jesus returns too and where the Church joins him. Hope that makes sense to you.

None of the chosen rulers and priests need to be physically present to rule mankind. The Kingdom is in heaven...it’s subjects are on earth. (Rev 21:2-4)
True, logically so, BUT ... Jesus says "I go .... I will return". Acts 3:21 tells us that Jesus remains in heaven until the times of restitution, that is when the Kingdom is to be established. Again, he has to do battle with Satan and the fallen angels, how does he do that from heaven? Can he just snap his fingers and they're gone? Abyssed? I'm sure he can, but that's not what the scriptures tell us. Even your Revelation book says Jesus does battle against Satan and hurls him to the vicinity of the earth, and now he must return to that same vicinity to bind him.

Jesus’ “parousia” is his “presence”.....he is “present” ruling his disciples and has been for over 100 years,
True, Jesus did tell his disciples, before he left that "Lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world" (aionos age), and, "I go to prepare a place for you, ...and will come again and receive you." (Matt. 28:20; John 14:2,3) But let's not confuse the two verses. Let's look at an example; One friend says to another as they're going their separate ways, "Remember, I will be with you through all your journey". How? Certainly not in person; for they went in opposite directions. The idea was that in love, and thought, and care one for another, they would not be separated. In a similar yet fuller sense, the Lord has always been with his Church, his divine power enabling him to oversee, direct and assist them, from first to last. But we're considering, not our Lord's presence with his body members in this figurative sense, but the manner of his second personal presence and appearing, "when he shall come to be glorified in his saints and to be admired in all them that believe in that day."

The apostle Paul made a clear distinction between his “presence” and his “absence” in Philippians 2:12...
“Consequently, my beloved ones, just as you have always obeyed, not only during my presence [pa·rou·siʹai] but now much more readily during my absence, [a·pou·siʹai] keep working out your own salvation with fear and trembling.”
Well, we're not discussing the Apostle Paul. But since you did, let's look at that verse in its entirety.

"So then, my dear friends, just as you have always obeyed, not only in my presence, but now even more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling."​
In other words, when Paul was in Philippi, the brethren diligently listened, and he could see their responses. Now, in his absence, he desired that they continue in obedience. He wanted them to realize that although he was absent, God was present with them. Their diligence to serve God should persist whether or not Paul was physically there. They should serve not only with fear and trembling lest they lose their crown but also as if being in the presence of God. “Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come short of it” (Heb. 4:1).

Someone’s “presence” is not the same as their “coming”.....you can see that someone is present even if you did not see them arrive.
The word translated “presence” in verse 12 is the Greek parousia. This usage in context is an excellent example of why it's correct to say the “presence of the Lord,” as opposed to his “return.” Parousia means “being present.” The fact that the opposite meaning is given here further qualifies parousia; namely, “presence” and “absence” are opposites, and the two words occur in the same verse. 14 “For it is God who works in us both to will and to do His good pleasure” (verse 13 paraphrase). The Philippians were not to be dependent on Paul or on any other personality for salvation because God was present with them and worked in them.

Yes, but they do not have to be in physical form. The devil and his demons have been confined to the earth since Jesus began ruling (Rev 12:7-12)....can you see them? No! But you can see the impact that they are having on the world of mankind.....”just like the days of Noah”....violence and immorality are rife.
I never said Jesus or his elect will be in physical form, I said Jesus return is personal, meaning he returns personally to the earth's atmosphere. Again Jane, that is where Satan and the fallen angels dwell. They are invisible to the human eye, but not the mind's eye,
As a spirit, Jesus (as well as his elect) can be in both realms, God has observed us from his heavenly vantage point since the beginning, but he does not have to be on earth to guide and direct the disciples of his son...he does so by means of his powerful spirit.
You're missing the point Jane. Yes, Jehovah is omnipresent. But remember, Jehovah has NEVER stepped foot on earth, "no man has seen God at any time." (John 1:18). Jehovah never had a first advent, and he's never had a second advent. If Jesus said, "I am with you always" then he never left, he's always been with them, but that isn't what the scriptures tell us. "If I go, I will come again". If his first advent was a personal one, wouldn't it make sense that his second advent would also be a personal one?
 
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RR144

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Jesus’ “parousia” is his “presence”.....he is “present” ruling his disciples and has been for over 100 years, directing the preaching work that he assigned to his elect, ably supported by the “other sheep” who will live on earth.
If you look carefully at John 10:16

“And I have other sheep, which are not of this fold; those also I must bring, and they will listen to my voice, and they will become one flock, one shepherd.” (NWT)​

The Bible speaks of the church as Jehovah’s flock (Acts 20:29; 1 Pet 5:2). Up until the conversion of Cornelius, the Gospel invitation had NOT been made available to the gentiles. But that changed suddenly about AD 36. Of the conversion of Cornelius’ household, we read in Acts 10:45, “And the faithful ones that had come with Peter who were of those circumcised were amazed, because the free gift of the holy spirit was being poured out also upon people of the nations.” (NWT)

The gentile Christians could not be invited until after the 70 weeks (Dan 9:24) for Israel were completed (AD 36). Of that final week [a day = a year], we read “And he must keep the covenant in force for the many for one week” (Dan 9:27 NWT). That covenant was Jehovah’s 70 weeks agreement with Israel. It was in the last half of the 70th week, three and a half years after the cross, that the great work was done amongst the Jews.

Applying the “other sheep” to the new gentile converts is the evident meaning and it would take strong additional scriptural evidence to convince the honest student otherwise. There is no direct indication in the Bible that these “other sheep” are referring only to the “Great Crowd” (true Christians who will not be part of the Little Flock.) Another reasonable application would be to apply this to the billions of mankind that will be awakened from the dead in Paradise earth and there have an opportunity to follow Jehovah in obedience forever. Without further compelling evidence, applying the “Other Sheep” to the “Great Crowd” is building a doctrine from a scripture taken out of context. This reminds us of the Catholic Church misapplication of Matt 16:18 which says, “You are Peter, and on this rock-mass I will build my congregation, and the gates of Ha’des will not overpower it.” (NWT) Based on an unsupportable misapplication of this text, the Catholic Church believes that the papacy represents an “unbroken” line of apostolic succession from Peter to the present day.
 

RR144

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Acts 1:14-26.....
During those days Peter stood up in the midst of the brothers (the number of people was altogether about 120) and said: 16 “Men, brothers, it was necessary for the scripture to be fulfilled that the holy spirit spoke prophetically through David about Judas, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus. 17 For he had been numbered among us and he obtained a share in this ministry. . . . . . .20 For it is written in the book of Psalms, ‘Let his dwelling become desolate, and let there be no inhabitant in it’ and, ‘His office of oversight let someone else take.21 It is therefore necessary that of the men who accompanied us during all the time in which the Lord Jesus carried on his activities among us, 22 starting with his baptism by John until the day he was taken up from us, one of these men should become a witness with us of his resurrection.

23 So they proposed two, Joseph called Barʹsab·bas, who was also called Justus, and Mat·thiʹas. 24 Then they prayed and said: “You, O Jehovah, who know the hearts of all, designate which one of these two men you have chosen 25 to take the place of this ministry and apostleship, from which Judas deviated to go to his own place.26 So they cast lots over them, and the lot fell to Mat·thiʹas, and he was counted along with the 11 apostles.


Was Peter guided by holy spirit? When he prayed for Jehovah’s guidance and cast lots, was it not God who had the lot fall to Matthias who was then counted along with the 11 other apostles.
Does verse 26 say that it was God who had the lot fall to Matthias" No, it says "they cast lots over them, and the lot fell to Mat·thiʹas, and he was counted along with the 11 apostles.” It was Jesus who chose his 12, and it was Jesus who chose Paul on his way to Emmaus, which is why Paul could confess that he was the to see Jesus, "last of all He was seen by me also, as by one born out of due time." - 1 Cor. 15:8

In 1 Cor. 1:1, Paul writes that he was "called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God." He had to constantly defend his apostleship "Am I not an apostle? Am I not free? Have I not seen Jesus Christ our Lord? Are you not my work in the Lord?" 1 Cor. 9:1 (See Also Romans 1:1)

Paul was never counted among the 12, nor does it ever say that he was Judas’ replacement.
His ministry was unlike any of the other apostles, being a “chosen vessel” for a special assignment (Rom 11:13).....and since Jesus is also called an “apostle” (Heb 3:1) we have to understand the meaning of the word.....it is simply “one sent forth”....God sent Jesus, and Jesus sent his disciples out to preach his message to the people. (John 17:3 ; Matt 10:11-14)
He doesn't have to say he was Judas' replacement. It was obvious. The 11 never challenged him. In fact they accepted him. (2 Peter 3:16, 17) In fact, Paul rebuked Peter to his face and in front of the whole assembly. Peter didn't challenge him. - Galatians 2:11-21

His ministry was unlike any of the other apostles, being a “chosen vessel” for a special assignment (Rom 11:13).....and since Jesus is also called an “apostle” (Heb 3:1) we have to understand the meaning of the word.....it is simply “one sent forth”....God sent Jesus, and Jesus sent his disciples out to preach his message to the people. (John 17:3 ; Matt 10:11-14)

And Jesus chose Paul and sent him forth in the same manner that he sent for the 11. But I guess we'll just have to agree to disagree on this issue. Believing Paul was or wasn't doesn't affect my salvation.
 
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RR144

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yes you could. any church the has people will have issues! BUT BUT BUT the enormous and critical difference is that outside of the RCC these other churches do not publicly in their materials to be Gods sole channel of Communication to people, Gods prophet and the only organization one can belong to, to be saved. Also according to the Watchtower, to contradict them is to contradict God! So when they come out with declarations, they are supposed to be straight from God.

It is not about a pastor falling into sexual sin or stealing funds, it is about making proclamations and saying it is from God and to not submit tot heir proclamations is to defy god!
Ahh, so a Pastor can abuse little boys, sexually harass congregation members, steal funds and that's okay, but claim to speak for God and that's blasphemy!

Tell me, doesn't the majority of Christendom believe that you have to accept Jesus now or be forever burned in a fiery hell? Talk about a God dishonoring doctrine. So according to Christendom, Christianity is the true faith, all others are false and of the devil, right? So which Christianity is the true Christianity? Baptist? Pentecostal? Adventists? Episcopalian? If Christianity is the True faith, why are there so many branches and sects? Is it because somebody disagreed with what was taught in their denomination and started a new one? Who's right and whose wrong?
 
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Ronald Nolette

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Ahh, so a Pastor can abuse little boys, sexually harass congregation members, steal funds and that's okay, but claim to speak for God and that's blasphemy!
Please do not sound like an idiot! Of course it is not ! I never even implied so!
Tell me, doesn't the majority of Christendom believe that you have to accept Jesus now or be forever burned in a fiery hell? Talk about a God dishonoring doctrine. So according to Christendom, Christianity is the true faith, all others are false and of the devil, right? So which Christianity is the true Christianity? Baptist? Pentecostal? Adventists? Episcopalian? If Christianity is the True faith, why are there so many branches and sects? Is it because somebody disagreed with what was taught in their denomination and started a new one? Who's right and whose wrong?
Christianity is the true faith! It is not a denomination, but a relationship with the God who has saved us! And yes all others are false. No denomination or sect is the one true church. The church according to god is not a denomination or organization but a living organism known also as the body of Christ.

If you wish to banter about why there are so many different sects within christendom, start a new thread and I will gladly discuss with you these things and why Scripture even showed this would happen within the external form of Christendom.

and whole True Christians may have disagreements on issues, we are in unity on the issues that matter. WE are one in faith even if we differ on minor issues.

And the Lake of Fire and suffering for eternity ios Gods judgment against those who reject His salvation found in the death, and physical resurrection of Jesus alone.

But remember this, it is the Watchtower who self proclaimed them selves Gods sole channel of communication and Gods prophet on earth. They have disfellowshipped people for disagreeing with their approved teachings, and still kept them in disfellowshipped state when they changed their official doctrine and it was in agreement with the person who stated before the Watchtower did!

they have changed their positions legions of times! Was it God changing his mind or men changing man made doctrines?
 
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Ronald Nolette

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44:6-- This is what YHWH has said, the king of Israel and the repurchaser of him, Jehovah of armies. I--( NOT WE) am the first and the last, and beside me( not we) there is no other God.
Evenh using the New Word MIstranslation, it still shows 2 people speaking who are called Yahweh. You simply cannot change that fact, nor can the Watchtower no matter how hard they rewrite that passage.
 
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The Learner

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Evenh using the New Word MIstranslation, it still shows 2 people speaking who are called Yahweh. You simply cannot change that fact, nor can the Watchtower no matter how hard they rewrite that passage.
Hi

Ronald , I am not following this part. Is it Job 44:6 that is being discussed? thanks, Daniel​

 

Keiw

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If there was even one categorical statement in the Bible by either God or his Christ, stating that they were equally “Yahweh” and equally "God", there would be no argument......but since every scripture they quote is an abiguous reference to what might seem like proof of a triune god, upon examining the context and comparing with actual categorical statements, we find no support for the Catholic inspired “Godhead”, because there is no such being mentioned in any biblical text.

All the attacks on our brotherhood are diversionary tactics to distract from the fact that they have no scriptural backing for their claims. When they have no defence.....they attack. It’s what defeated humans do.
Yes very sad, they wont believe Jesus over the blind guides.
 
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Keiw

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Evenh using the New Word MIstranslation, it still shows 2 people speaking who are called Yahweh. You simply cannot change that fact, nor can the Watchtower no matter how hard they rewrite that passage.
No it does not.
 

Aunty Jane

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Evenh using the New Word MIstranslation, it still shows 2 people speaking who are called Yahweh. You simply cannot change that fact, nor can the Watchtower no matter how hard they rewrite that passage.
Show us this Ronald.....what scripture shows 2 people speaking who are called Yahweh? Then I will show you why the Jewish Shema cannot be contradicted.....(Deuteronomy 6:4)
 
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Ronald Nolette

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Show us this Ronald.....what scripture shows 2 people speaking who are called Yahweh? Then I will show you why the Jewish Shema cannot be contradicted.....(Deuteronomy 6:4)
First off, it does not contradict but compliment the Sh'ma!

Let us look at the sh'ma:

Deuteronomy 6:4​

King James Version​

4 Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord:

Hear(qal imperative) so it is Pay close attention Israel.

Yahweh-God

our Elohim (plural noun)

ONe-echad- used in Hebrew to denote a compound one! Like we would say that the Smiths are one family made up of 3 members.

Yahweh.

So god is not a triad or three gods with three separate personalities or essence- But is a compound one- all three called God in the bible share the same essence.

Now for Is. 44. I will post it in over 30 English translations afterwards.

Isaiah 44:6​

King James Version​

6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

2 people speaking

Yahweh- King of Israel
Yahweh- Redeemer of Israel.

How do we know this?

Even though the Watchtower retranslates this to say :

This is what Jehovah says,
The King of Israel+ and his Repurchaser,+ Jehovah of armies:
‘I am the first and I am the last.+ There is no God but me.+

the phrase "and his redeemer" is one word in Hebrew "we-go alow" and the noun construct is third person singular masculine. This makes it refer back to the nearest personal noun- Yahweh. plus the conjunction and connects two people not two attributes. All languages know that when the conjunction "and" connects two personal nouns- it is talking about two people!

Just remember God created grammar and the rules of grammar so we would be able to communicate clearly! So Isaih 44:6 shows two entities called Yahweh speaking.

1. Yahweh, King of Israel
2. Yahweh of hosts

That is why people weho have not allowed someone to corrupt teh rules of grammar in their minds see this as 2 Yahwehs speaking!

Now as to teh ending which says "there is no god but me" which is singular?

Once again Yahweh is showing a mystery hidden in the old but revealed in the new: God is a compound one!

that is why Jesus could say:

John 14:9
Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

SEe is horao which primarily means to see with the eyes. and coupled with "show" (deiknyo) can only mean see physically.
 
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Keiw

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Yes it does. The Watchtower cannot change the rules of understanding written language and Grammar. they may convince the weak but they are wrong!
In every translation on earth, the teachings of Jesus back the JW teachers. Best for you to learn those teachings and apply them.
 
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Ronald Nolette

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In every translation on earth, the teachings of Jesus back the JW teachers. Best for you to learn those teachings and apply them.
You are wrong, but then again you have to say what you just did. That is what your masters demand of you.

If they meant the lies of the watchtower, then the watchtower doctrines would be promulgated far more than they are.
 

Aunty Jane

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Deuteronomy 6:4​

King James Version​

4 Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord:

Hear(qal imperative) so it is Pay close attention Israel.

Yahweh-God

our Elohim (plural noun)

ONe-echad- used in Hebrew to denote a compound one! Like we would say that the Smiths are one family made up of 3 members.
You mean like the scriptures just in Genesis alone, that refer to "one" as actually "one"?
Gen 1:5..."one day"
Gen 1:9..."one place"
Gen2:24..."One" of Adam's ribs.
Gen 4:19...the name of "one" of Lamech's wives.
Gen 21;15..."one of the bushes"
Gen 26:10..."one of the people".

In all of these verses in Genesis "one" means "one". Same word.

Show us please where the Jewish people ever thought of their God Yahweh as several personalities in one "Godhead"...there is no such God in their scripture. This is the scripture that Paul stated was "inspired of God and beneficial for teaching". (2 Tim 3:16-17) They stop being beneficial when people manipulate the words to support false doctrines. The Jews did it first, and it led them to reject their own Messiah. (Matt 15:7-9) They lost their place in God's Kingdom.
Yahweh.

So god is not a triad or three gods with three separate personalities or essence- But is a compound one- all three called God in the bible share the same essence.
And where will I find such a definition in the scriptures as taught from the Hebrew or Greek writings which were all recorded by Jewish penmen? There is no triune god in any verse of scripture, but we can see how the idea was woven in to support such a notion by the "weeds" that Jesus said the devil would sow.

Isaiah 44:6​

King James Version​

6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

2 people speaking

Yahweh- King of Israel
Yahweh- Redeemer of Israel.
Two? Where are two? Yahweh is both King and Redeemer of Israel. He has many titles, but only one name. (Psalm 83:18 KJV)
Jesus OTOH, has many names and titles. God gave him every one of them. (Rev 3:12; Phil 2:9)
Even though the Watchtower retranslates this to say :

This is what Jehovah says,
The King of Israel+ and his Repurchaser,+ Jehovah of armies:
‘I am the first and I am the last.+ There is no God but me.+

the phrase "and his redeemer" is one word in Hebrew "we-go alow" and the noun construct is third person singular masculine. This makes it refer back to the nearest personal noun- Yahweh. plus the conjunction and connects two people not two attributes. All languages know that when the conjunction "and" connects two personal nouns- it is talking about two people!
Yes, there it is in your own interpretation...."two people not two attributes".
Yahweh and his son are two separate individuals, who are in complete harmony with each other in words, deeds and unity of purpose.
So here again is the 'sleight of hand' in manipulating scripture to say what it never did.
Yahweh is both a King and a Redeemer but because you concentrate on words and put your own meaning to them, you imagine that these terms can only apply to Yahweh.....but the one who sends the savior is also a savior....the one who provides the redeemer is also a redeemer. You created 'personalities within one God', and yet by your own admission there two persons, but only one Yahweh.
The personification of the holy spirit does not make it a person, any more than personifying wisdom makes it a person.

Just remember God created grammar and the rules of grammar so we would be able to communicate clearly! So Isaih 44:6 shows two entities called Yahweh speaking.

1. Yahweh, King of Israel
2. Yahweh of hosts

That is why people weho have not allowed someone to corrupt teh rules of grammar in their minds see this as 2 Yahwehs speaking!

Now as to teh ending which says "there is no god but me" which is singular?

Once again Yahweh is showing a mystery hidden in the old but revealed in the new: God is a compound one!
Oh, and here we have to call up that old chestnut...the "hidden mystery"......the trinity is not a mystery....it is an invention of the devil to take people down the wrong path. He has you worshipping the wrong god. Yahweh was never a threesome. Ask any Jew how many gods there are...? They got a lot of things wrong in their behavior, but their scripture never lied. Those who translated it with a wicked agenda did, however. Those who promote the lie, even if they did not create it, will not go unpunished. The "many" are traveling happily down the wrong road. (Matt 7:13-14) It is the "few" who travel the difficult road.
John 14:9
Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

SEe is horao which primarily means to see with the eyes. and coupled with "show" (deiknyo) can only mean see physically.
Yes....in the man Jesus, was the very personality of his Father on display for all to see. He "showed" his disciples what his Father was like as Paul said...in Hebrews 1:1-3 (NKJV)
"God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds; 3 who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high".

Jesus was the last 'prophet' sent to Israel...."His Son whom he appointed heir of all things".....read that again and ask yourself if this can possibly be describing one who is equal with his superior Father? How does God appoint Jesus as an "heir" if what he inherits is already his?

It goes on to say that it is "through" this son that God "made the worlds" (plural) so agency is mentioned here.....the son being used by the Father in creation.....the "us" and "our" in Genesis 1:26. (see John 1:2-3 and Col 1:15-17)

It then mentions Jesus being the "brightness of his glory"......is the "brightness" of the sun speaking about the sun itself or its radiation of light?
And "the express image of his person"...again is this even remotely suggesting that these two are the same being? Isn't an "image" a mere reflection of the real thing?

Then it says that he "sat down at the right hand of Majesty on high"....which is confirmation of David's prophetic words in Psalm 110:1-2.
Why is he sitting at God's right hand? (and where in scripture will I find the holy spirit sitting at his left?) He is waiting for his God to 'place his enemies as a stool for his feet'. Why does an equal power need someone else to do what he could do himself?

Your interpretation of scripture fails on every level, despite your protestations, and I am sure that honest hearted ones will see right through the falsehoods you vainly promote.
 
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Ronald Nolette

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Show us please where the Jewish people ever thought of their God Yahweh as several personalities in one "Godhead"...there is no such God in their scripture. This is the scripture that Paul stated was "inspired of God and beneficial for teaching". (2 Tim 3:16-17) They stop being beneficial when people manipulate the words to support false doctrines. The Jews did it first, and it led them to reject their own Messiah. (Matt 15:7-9) They lost their place in God's Kingdom.
I already answered this once. I won't do it again. go back and carefully read my posts.

Oh, and here we have to call up that old chestnut...the "hidden mystery"......the trinity is not a mystery....it is an invention of the devil to take people down the wrong path. He has you worshipping the wrong god. Yahweh was never a threesome. Ask any Jew how many gods there are...? They got a lot of things wrong in their behavior, but their scripture never lied. Those who translated it with a wicked agenda did, however. Those who promote the lie, even if they did not create it, will not go unpunished. The "many" are traveling happily down the wrong road. (Matt 7:13-14) It is the "few" who travel the difficult road.
Well we have two people called Yahweh ion this passage and confirmed by James, Paul, even Jesus Himself as well as John! But I see you did not even try to refute teh accurate grammar I brought forth.

John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

Is John lying here?
Yes....in the man Jesus, was the very personality of his Father on display for all to see. He "showed" his disciples what his Father was like as Paul said...in Hebrews 1:1-3 (NKJV)
"God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds; 3 who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high".

Jesus was the last 'prophet' sent to Israel...."His Son whom he appointed heir of all things".....read that again and ask yourself if this can possibly be describing one who is equal with his superior Father? How does God appoint Jesus as an "heir" if what he inherits is already his?
I see you have quickly forgotten the numerous times that I said God the Father is superior in position to God the Son and God the Spirit.

But they are all equally divine and share the same essence. Jesus is inferior to His Father in position, but equal to HIs father in Deity. Try to remember this , this time.

Now for verse 3: the luminescence of God the Father is Jesus!

Now go do a word study and look up how the Greek and Hebrew Cultures considered what "the express image of his person," (charakter) meant.
Then it says that he "sat down at the right hand of Majesty on high"....which is confirmation of David's prophetic words in Psalm 110:1-2.
Why is he sitting at God's right hand? (and where in scripture will I find the holy spirit sitting at his left?) He is waiting for his God to 'place his enemies as a stool for his feet'. Why does an equal power need someone else to do what he could do himself?
Do you have a short term memory disorder? Power I assume you mean authority. and no the bible does not teach that God the Son has the same authority as the Father ultimately.
Your interpretation of scripture fails on every level, despite your protestations, and I am sure that honest hearted ones will see right through the falsehoods you vainly promote.
Well it has been the "interpretation" that has been accepted by true and external true Christians for 2 millenia now. It wasn't until the heresies of Origen in the 3rd Century that Jesus was taught as "a god" and a created being. He later repented.

And yet you say I fail, and I bring passages without commentary, use language to show what the passage says and show how the langu8age is used.

all you do is vomit out what the Watchtower has indoctrinated you to believe and use vain philosophical reasonings' to defend the Watchtower beliefs you cling to.

As long as you reject the physical resurrection of Jesus you are still in the flesh and God said those in the flesh cannot please God.

As long as you believe you must do good works to stay saved- you are preaching a false gospel

AS long as you reject your personal need to be born again- You do not have life in you and you have not the Spirit of God in you! So you cannot do works that please god according to God Himself. You look to the Watchtower to tell you what to believe Just like the Dark AGe Catholics looked to their "faithful and discreet slave class" did.

Teh WT and the RCC both say only they have the authority to interpret Scripture and what they say goes!

Hitler, Mussolini, Mao, Xi Xiping, Pol Pot and Castro did that on a secular government level as well. And all secular and religious have enslaved people in enormous lies!

there are lots of things you and I can disagree on, but the bible is too clear about the fact that all must be born again or they are lost. The bible also is clear that Jesus physically rose from the dead.
the Bible is also crystal clear that jesus and our Father are equally divine!

The bible is also clear that in this age the name Jesus is the most exalted name in the universe! The liars of the Watchtower by rewriting SCriptures by adding articles and words like other have condemend themselves and all those who choose to follow those lies!
 
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Aunty Jane

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I already answered this once. I won't do it again. go back and carefully read my posts.
Ronald, you are a bit full of your own opinion here…..I have read your posts once and that was enough to establish the fact that you cannot back up a single thing you believe scripturally, without assumption about what the scripture actually says in context with the rest of the Bible.
Well we have two people called Yahweh ion this passage and confirmed by James, Paul, even Jesus Himself as well as John! But I see you did not even try to refute teh accurate grammar I brought forth.
Nonsense…..the “accurate grammar” that you suggested proves nothing.
If there was one direct statement by either God or his Christ that they were two parts of a triune godhead, then we would not be having this discussion. You cannot produce one single verse in the Bible that confirms categorically that Jesus is “ho theos”. Nowhere is Jesus ever called Yahweh. This is a fact.
John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

Is John lying here?
No, but those who misinterpret scripture are lying about the most important issue in the whole Bible….the very nature of Yahweh and his relationship with his son.

Try John 10:33-36 in the Greek and see that the Greek in this passage specifically identifies the true God by the use of the definite article (“ho theos”) and the lesser divinely authorized ones are only “theos”. You can see that the word “theos” is used even for human judges who were authorized by Yahweh. This passage clearly reveals that in the Greek language, the two “gods” are identified….and yet in the English translation, the difference is not recognized…..that is mistranslation.

Here it is in the KJV…..
“The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. (theos)
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? (theos, referring to human judges in Israel)
35 If he called them gods, (theos) unto whom the word of God (ho theos) came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?”
(ho theos)

Read as written, Yahweh is identified with “ho” making him “THE God” (of the Jews) in a nation whose language did not differentiate between their gods except by name. Because the Jews had long ceased uttering the divine name, this nameless God of the Jews could only be identified by the definite article.
In verse 33 the Jews were not accusing Jesus of being HO THEOS, but of making himself “a god”, breaking God’s law. (Ex 20:3)
If the human judges in Israel could be called “gods” by Yahweh himself, referring to their divine authority, then Jesus too is a divinely authorized son of “ho theos”, as he stated. There was his opportunity to identify himself as Yahweh....but he did not. He identified himself as the son of Yahweh.

John 1:1 also suffers from this mistranslation error.

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, (ho theos) and the Word was God (theos).” (KJV) The Word was not called “ho theos“, but he was “with ho theos”. You cannot be “with” someone if you are that someone.
It was the Word who became flesh, not Yahweh (ho theos). (John 1:14)

This lie has been perpetuated for centuries, leading the entire religious system of Christendom into the same kind or error that destroyed the Jewish nation. (Matt 15:7-9) Satan has done it again. He has no new tricks and can count on corrupt individuals in high places to do his bidding. Deception works with those who want to believe it.

I see you have quickly forgotten the numerous times that I said God the Father is superior in position to God the Son and God the Spirit.
“I said”? Who said? If the trinity teaches that Jesus is equally God with the Father, then your version of the trinity differs from theirs.
If Paul identified Jesus as the "one mediator between God and man”, then please tell me how Jesus is God?
We would need a mediator between us and him.

Jesus is called God’s “holy servant” (Acts 4:27)…..so how can God be his own servant?

In Revelation 3:12, the resurrected Jesus calls his Father “my God” four times in that one verse.…please tell me how God can worship an equally divine part of himself even in heaven?

You can name call all you wish, but it doesn’t answer the difficult questions which your own theology raises. Getting snarky about it doesnt alter a thing. Attack is not defense.
But they are all equally divine and share the same essence. Jesus is inferior to His Father in position, but equal to HIs father in Deity. Try to remember this , this time.
LOL…..now you see why your protestations are empty….there is not a single scripture that says what you have said here….perhaps you should try to remember this….?
 
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Aunty Jane

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Continued...
Now for verse 3: the luminescence of God the Father is Jesus!

Now go do a word study and look up how the Greek and Hebrew Cultures considered what "the express image of his person," (charakter) meant.
Oh please stop making vain excuses for your empty claims…

Col 1 15-19….KJV
15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
19 For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell”.


Read that carefully Ronald…..
Jesus is “the image” of his Creator….he is the “firstborn of every creature” which includes the angelic sons of God. He was the agency of creation in heaven and on earth. This makes the son a creation of his Father. (Rev 3:14) The son is “begotten” which necessitates a begetter who existed before him, as all sons are produced by a pre-existent father. He was the “firstborn of every creature” long before his earthly life.

He is “the firstborn from the dead” which would be impossible if Jesus was an immortal part of God.
Immortals cannot die, yet Jesus came in mortal flesh to offer his life for ours. He did not resurrect himself, his God and Father did.
“It pleased the Father to have all fullness dwell” in him. So he was a perfect reflection of his Creator.
By his sacrificial death, he reconciled all that was alienated from his Father in Eden, bringing all creation back into harmony with Yahweh, so that God’s first purpose could be achieved. After the Kingdom has achieved its goals, the whole arrangement is handed back to the Father as mankind's rightful Sovereign. (1 Cor 15:24)
Do you have a short term memory disorder? Power I assume you mean authority. and no the bible does not teach that God the Son has the same authority as the Father ultimately.
Do you see what a tangled web is created by deception…? This is unscriptural nonsense. You must have your own version of the trinity….the Father is the God of Jesus even in heaven. Are you saying that Jesus is a lesser god? We get accused of claiming this....now, that’s funny.
the bible is too clear about the fact that all must be born again or they are lost. The bible also is clear that Jesus physically rose from the dead.
the Bible is also crystal clear that jesus and our Father are equally divine!
What does being “born again” mean to you? Because Nicodemus asked Jesus that question….
The bible is also clear that in this age the name Jesus is the most exalted name in the universe!
It is an important name, no question about that, but there is only one name that is given to “The Most High over all the earth” (Psalm 83:18 KJV) Jesus has many names, but Yahweh only has one.
Philippians 2 is often quoted to prove that Jesus is God, but it is never read the way Paul wrote it, especially in the outdated version that you use.
Here it is in the ESV….

“Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”

Read with understanding and not blinded by false doctrine, this passage says the opposite of what most people think it does.
Jesus was in God's "form"...so what "form" does Yahweh have? He is "a spirit" as John tells us. (John 4:24)
So Jesus did NOT think equality with God was "something to be grasped". From a magnificent spirit creature, he allowed himself to be born as a mere mortal human in the role of a "servant". He was “obedient” to his God and willingly undertook the assignment of saving the human race by his own substitutionary death. After his mission was successfully completed, his God rewarded him by highly exalting him (how can God highly exalt himself?) and giving him a name that is above every name…..except the name of his Father, as no one can have a name equal to, or above the name of Yahweh.
And we bow in respectful honor to Jesus for this accomplishment in our behalf, but along with our Lord Jesus we confess that his mission was for "God’s glory", not his own.

You keep digging a bigger hole with each post Ronald…..you are proven wrong time and again, but you can’t admit it…..pride is not helping you out here….it is making a fool of you.