Did Jesus inherit sinful flesh nature?

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Hobie

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Jesus took Adams human nature after the fall so He was born with all the damage done to mans nature during that time. But Jesus did not inherit sinful tendencies from Adam, that is, Jesus did not have a tendency to sin. Christ inherited our physical weaknesses, for example, Christ had to sleep when he got tired. He had to eat when he got hungry and drink when he got thirsty. He inherited our physical limitations but not our sinful inclinations.

Physically, Christ was like us, feeling pain, frail, weak, prone to get sick if we dont take care of our bodies, and under the consequences of aging. But morally, Christ could be tested by temptation as scripture shows us but did not have our ungodly desires or sinful inclinations. Jesus' mental human nature (tendency toward sin) was that of the unfallen Adam and his physical human nature (physical body) was that after the fall of Adam." and at the same time why it makes it hard to understand. What makes Jesus equal (having no advantage over other human beings), is that he had all the damage done by sin (Adam’s human nature after the fall), but he had what Peter calls 'the Mind of Christ' which was what Adam was given to begin with and Paul speaks of, that man can have and become dead to sin. Thus Christ has no advantage in overcoming sin as through the power of the Holy Spirit we also can have the 'Mind of Christ'.
 

Dan Clarkston

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But Jesus did not inherit sinful tendencies from Adam, that is, Jesus did not have a tendency to sin.

None of us did either... God did not put the desire to sin in each baby that was born.

What happened was we were all influenced by this darkened world full of sin.... and we all committed our own sin and we all developed sinful habits and these sinful habits are the so called "sin nature" and n one of us were born with this

This was not something the Lord built in to every baby. That's a fallacy the devil has tricked most people in to believing so everyone would think it's just their nature to do sinful stuff.

Romans 3:23
For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

We all became sinners AFTER we arrived on Club Earth so God is holding each person accountable for their own sin, not for Adam's sin

Romans 5:12
Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

Here again.... death (separation from God) passed upon all men because all have sinned which happened after we got here


Even if what you are saying is true... it's no longer true for those who have been born again

2 Corinthians 5:17
Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
 

TrevorHL

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Greetings Hobie,
Jesus took Adams human nature after the fall so He was born with all the damage done to mans nature during that time. But Jesus did not inherit sinful tendencies from Adam, that is, Jesus did not have a tendency to sin.
I suggest that Jesus did have the same lusts and tendencies to sin, but he always overcame these by his education and wisdom and his meditation on the word of God.

Luke 2:40,52 (KJV): 40 And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him. 52 And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man.

John 1:14 (KJV): And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Galatians 5:24 (KJV): And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.

Romans 8:3 (KJV): For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful (or sin's) flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Dan Clarkston

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Jesus did have the same lusts and tendencies to sin, but he always overcame these by his education and wisdom and his meditation on the word of God.

Actually Jesus did not have sinful desires... He had never fallen in sin as we had and He said He only does what He sees His Father do, and the Father never had sinful desires either disagree.gif

The devil came to Him and tried to get Jesus to accept sinful desires and Jesus refused to accept them which is what born again believers should be doing.... NOT accepting the devil's thoughts and temptations

Hebrews 4:15
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
 
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TrevorHL

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Greetings Dan Clarkston,
Actually Jesus did not have sinful desires
Jesus had the same lusts as we have, but always overcame them.
Hebrews 2:14–18 (KJV): 14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. 16 For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. 17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. 18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Dan Clarkston

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Jesus had the same lusts as we have, but always overcame them.

Actually, those born again and filled with the Holy Spirit do not sit around desiring evil things and Jesus had the Holy Spirit without measure so He certainly was not sitting around desiring evil things

John 3:34
For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.

This means Jesus was in full control of Himself and used all the fruit of the Spirit with perfection since He did so without ever sinning.

James 1:14
But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.

The reason the devil never could get Jesus to sin was simply because.... Jesus only did what He saw the Father Do, He only said what the Father said and as such.... the Father cannot be tempted with sin, and consequently Jesus cannot be tempted either.

Sure the devil brought temptation to Jesus and you cannot tempt someone when they have zero desire for evil. If Jesus ever had just one desire for anything sinful... that in and of itself would have been a sin to just desire sin.

So feel free to believe Jesus was sitting around desiring sinful things... I'll pass.
 
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TrevorHL

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Greetings again Dan Clarkston,
Actually, those born again and filled with the Holy Spirit do not sit around desiring evil things and Jesus had the Holy Spirit without measure so He certainly was not sitting around desiring evil things
You have a different theology and perspective on a number of items. Having the lusts is not a sin, it becomes a sin when these lusts conceive. Jesus always overcame these lusts:
James 1:13–16 (KJV): 13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: 14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. 15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. 16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Hobie

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Greetings Hobie,

I suggest that Jesus did have the same lusts and tendencies to sin, but he always overcame these by his education and wisdom and his meditation on the word of God.

Luke 2:40,52 (KJV): 40 And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him. 52 And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man.

John 1:14 (KJV): And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Galatians 5:24 (KJV): And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.

Romans 8:3 (KJV): For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful (or sin's) flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Kind regards
Trevor
Good Morning my brother.

This is a hard thing to grasp and it has been the cause of much debate among Christians and from my take breaks down between what people see in themselves as they struggle with sin, and what they assume had to be in Christ. They say well Christ had to be like me, so He had to have sin and yet the Bible says He knew no sin and was our example.

2 Corinthians 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

1 Peter 2:21-23
21 For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:
22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously:

And yet He was tempted just as we are, He was not impeccable as some claim in the manner of being not capable of sinning or could not be tempted.

Hebrews 4:15
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

Christ had inherited all the weakness of man that had come since the fall of man and was predisposed to sin just as we are, and yet did not sin or allow sin to dwell in Him or know sin.

1 John 3:5
And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.

1 Peter 1:19
18 Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers;
19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:

So its hard for many to accept that Christ came fully man with all his weaknesses and the temptations and was able to overcome and be perfect before the Father as we must do. And yet we see the following...

Romans 8:3
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

This is not an easy thing to understand.......
 

PGS11

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Its a Catholic belief not believed by other Christians. The Immaculate Conception is the centre of it.That Jesus could not take on fallen flesh when he came. So Mary born without original sin allows this to happen.If Mary was born without original sin Jesus would not have to take on fallen flesh.Which is the belief and makes sense.
Jesus was not in a fallen state and neither was Mary.
It angers a lot of people that God the Father would have prepared Mary for the coming of Christ
Its all based on all of Humanity is in a fallen state from the fall of humanity and unable to ascend to heaven due to the fall with Satan as the main player in it plunging humanity into a fallen state so they could not ascend to heaven..Its what Jesus is saving you from.
If your not Catholic you don't have to believe it but it does make sense.How could Jesus take on fallen flesh Jesus is divine he cannot take on fallen flesh.
The sacrifice would not of been acceptable to the Father if Jesus had original sin or sinned in any way.
 
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Dan Clarkston

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Having the lusts is not a sin

Er, that's not what Jesus said....

Matthew 5:28
But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

The devil tried to tempt Jesus in all the things we are tempted with including lusting after women.

To say it's not a sin to desire and lust after evil such as sexual relations outside of marriage after seeing Matthew 5:28 means somebody does not accept all that the Lord says.

It's very sad when folks claim desiring evil is not a sin... that is a doctrine of demons



You have a different theology and perspective on a number of items.

Yes, according to what God's Word actually teaches compared to the false doctrine taught in the majority of churches.
 

MA2444

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Jesus took Adams human nature after the fall so He was born with all the damage done to mans nature during that time. But Jesus did not inherit sinful tendencies from Adam, that is, Jesus did not have a tendency to sin. Christ inherited our physical weaknesses, for example, Christ had to sleep when he got tired. He had to eat when he got hungry and drink when he got thirsty. He inherited our physical limitations but not our sinful inclinations.

Physically, Christ was like us, feeling pain, frail, weak, prone to get sick if we dont take care of our bodies, and under the consequences of aging. But morally, Christ could be tested by temptation as scripture shows us but did not have our ungodly desires or sinful inclinations. Jesus' mental human nature (tendency toward sin) was that of the unfallen Adam and his physical human nature (physical body) was that after the fall of Adam." and at the same time why it makes it hard to understand. What makes Jesus equal (having no advantage over other human beings), is that he had all the damage done by sin (Adam’s human nature after the fall), but he had what Peter calls 'the Mind of Christ' which was what Adam was given to begin with and Paul speaks of, that man can have and become dead to sin. Thus Christ has no advantage in overcoming sin as through the power of the Holy Spirit we also can have the 'Mind of Christ'.

That's a fair question. One I have thought of myself before but never asked. If Jesus was perfect then He could not have inherited the sin nature from His Mother, Mary's sin nature. So I didn't know how it happened so that Jesus was birn with no sin, so I just chalked it up to, well God did something, did God purify Mary before the conception of Jesus? Something like that.

Then I clicked on an unknown Pastors message on youbube and he started talking about this very thing. I didn't take notes but I listened and it made sense to me. He said that the preperation by purification of Mary's bloodline did take place, so that Jesus could be born perfect and with no sin nature.

I can't even remember this Pastors name, lol. I remember the gist of it though.
 

TrevorHL

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Greetings again Dan Clarkston,
To say it's not a sin to desire and lust after evil such as sexual relations outside of marriage after seeing Matthew 5:28 means somebody does not accept all that the Lord says.
There may be a fine line between having the lusts of the flesh and allowing those lusts to conceive in our hearts, but there is a distinction. I go shopping every week and cannot avoid noticing the various women who have tattoos or dress in some different ways, sometimes not modestly, but there is a big gap between noticing these people and having a decided lust against them. I also notice many modest young women with their young families and their general disposition is very comforting. With us who have on occasion ventured down the wrong thought pattern, there is the process of sublimation, the process of deliberately replacing bad thoughts and actions with positive good thoughts and actions, such as given in Ephesian 4:20-32. On the other hand Jesus never allowed sin to conceive in his heart. Having the lusts of the flesh is not sin.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

MA2444

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No, Mary had sinned as everyone else had.

Jesus decided to not sin.... unlike the rest of us.

So your saying that it is impossible for God to purify someone or a bloodline?

Wow, brother. I've never heard that before. Could you explain to me how it works?
 

Hobie

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Its a Catholic belief not believed by other Christians. The Immaculate Conception is the centre of it.That Jesus could not take on fallen flesh when he came. So Mary born without original sin allows this to happen.If Mary was born without original sin Jesus would not have to take on fallen flesh.Which is the belief and makes sense.
Jesus was not in a fallen state and neither was Mary.
It angers a lot of people that God the Father would have prepared Mary for the coming of Christ
Its all based on all of Humanity is in a fallen state from the fall of humanity and unable to ascend to heaven due to the fall with Satan as the main player in it plunging humanity into a fallen state so they could not ascend to heaven..Its what Jesus is saving you from.
If your not Catholic you don't have to believe it but it does make sense.How could Jesus take on fallen flesh Jesus is divine he cannot take on fallen flesh.
The sacrifice would not of been acceptable to the Father if Jesus had original sin or sinned in any way.
That of itself tells you that 'original sin' is a idea brought in by the church of Rome, not Gods Word.
 

Dan Clarkston

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There may be a fine line between having the lusts of the flesh and allowing those lusts to conceive in our hearts, but there is a distinction. I go shopping every week and cannot avoid noticing the various women who have tattoos or dress in some different ways, sometimes not modestly, but there is a big gap between noticing these people and having a decided lust against them. I also notice many modest young women with their young families and their general disposition is very comforting. With us who have on occasion ventured down the wrong thought pattern, there is the process of sublimation, the process of deliberately replacing bad thoughts and actions with positive good thoughts and actions, such as given in Ephesian 4:20-32. On the other hand Jesus never allowed sin to conceive in his heart. Having the lusts of the flesh is not sin.


Whatever... you have Jesus lusting and desiring evil, sinful things... that's false doctrine




So your saying that it is impossible for God to purify someone or a bloodline?

God's Word says that ALL.... as in ALL have fallen short of God's glory and have sinned... this included Mary. Go look it up

You are claiming I said something that I never said due to your confusion on the topic

God is not the author of confusion




That of itself tells you that 'original sin' is a idea brought in by the church of Rome, not Gods Word.

Exactly... with the help of the devil of course who is behind scripture twisting
 

TrevorHL

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Greetings again Hobie,
Good Morning my brother.
I appreciate the warm welcome. Our time is different in NSW Australia and Florida. Your post is listed as 11:51 pm here.
Romans 8:3 (KJV): For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful (or sin's) flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
It is interesting that we both quote Romans 8:3, but possibly we have a different perspective on the meaning of this verse. I consider that this verse summarises much of what Paul has said in Romans 7 and the beginning of Romans 8, and as such is a very key verse on this subject.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

Aunty Jane

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That of itself tells you that 'original sin' is a idea brought in by the church of Rome, not Gods Word.
Original sin has been a very misunderstood concept IMO.…butchered it is true by the Catholic church, but
Rom 5:12 tells us….
”….just as through one man sin entered into the world and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because they had all sinned“….what are we to make of that?

What is “sin” then? If “death” comes only through sin, were the humans created to die? If not, then what would have happened if Adam had never disobeyed his God? Would death ever have occurred? Did being mortal mean they had to die….or only that they could if they disobeyed?

If God did not purpose for humans to die, then what is our purpose in being created here on this carefully and lovingly prepared planet?
God’s intelligent creation have free will, both in heaven and on earth, otherwise the devil could never have chosen to become a rebel….and Eve could never have chosen to eat of the fruit, nor could Adam have chosen to join her.

So what is original sin?….and how did it spread to Adam’s children….all of them…..so that no one could offer to God recommence for his sin and redeem his children from bondage to sin and death? (1 Cor 15:22; 1 John 1:8-10)

Why did Jesus need to come from outside the human race in order to be that redeemer? What could he offer that no one else could?

The big picture Hobie…..what is it?
 
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Hobie

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Greetings again Hobie,

I appreciate the warm welcome. Our time is different in NSW Australia and Florida. Your post is listed as 11:51 pm here.


It is interesting that we both quote Romans 8:3, but possibly we have a different perspective on the meaning of this verse. I consider that this verse summarises much of what Paul has said in Romans 7 and the beginning of Romans 8, and as such is a very key verse on this subject.

Kind regards
Trevor
Good Morning my brother,
I planned to travel to Australia, but the Covid19 seems to have thrown it off a bit, we shall see. But to your point, I didnt give any view on the verse, just quoted it to show the difficulty of this issue. But lets take a look as we can see several things from what is given in Romans 8:3 and more text.

Romans 8:3
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

This tells us that Christ was sent with man's nature after the race had being encumbered with four thousand years of damage of sin from the Garden of Eden. We also see this in John 1:
John 1:14
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Christ took man's nature after the race had suffered the damages from their original state of purity and perfection at the Garden. So Christ came "in the likeness of sinful flesh" or with the weaknesses of fallen man upon him, where He withstood the temptations of Satan upon all points that could used against us.

Hebrews 4:15
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

God made man perfect and upright at the Garden, but after man sinned there could be no sacrifice acceptable to God for man, except a unblemished one, and that was Christ. There is the issue that has made it hard to understand, how could Christ be unblemished and yet fully man with all the decay done by sin.
 

Hobie

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Original sin has been a very misunderstood concept IMO.…butchered it is true by the Catholic church, but
Rom 5:12 tells us….
”….just as through one man sin entered into the world and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because they had all sinned“….what are we to make of that?

What is “sin” then? If “death” comes only through sin, were the humans created to die? If not, then what would have happened if Adam had never disobeyed his God? Would death ever have occurred? Did being mortal mean they had to die….or only that he could if he disobeyed?

If God did not purpose for humans to die, then what is our purpose in being created here on this carefully and lovingly prepared planet?
God’s intelligent creation have free will, both in heaven and on earth, otherwise the devil could never have chosen to become a rebel….and Eve could never have chosen to eat of the fruit, nor could Adam have chosen to join her.

So what is original sin?….and how did it spread to Adam’s children….all of them…..so that no one could offer to God recommence for his sin and redeem his children from bondage to sin and death? (1 Cor 15:22; 1 John 1:8-10)

Why did Jesus need to come from outside the human race in order to be that redeemer? What could he offer that no one else could?

The big picture Hobie…..what is it?
Thats not easy to answer Aunty, but here is something I posted on this some time back that Gods Word gives clues to understanding.

"And out of the ground made the Lord God to grow every tree that is pleasant to the sight, and good for food; the tree of life also in the midst of the garden, and the tree of knowledge of good and evil." Genesis 2:9 King James Version (KJV)

Is the tree of life what allows man the gift of eternal life, and what Adam and Eve lost at the Garden of Eden?

"26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." Genesis 1:26 King James Version (KJV)

Man was made in the image of the Godhead but was not made immortal, but given a avenue, in which man could "take also of the tree of life, and eat and live for ever."

"22 And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:" Genesis 3:22 King James Version (KJV)

Adam and Eve were mortal but had access to the tree of life. When Adam sinned, he and Eve were barred from the Garden of Eden and the tree of life. From that moment on they began to feel the wages of sin:

"27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:" Hebrews 9:27 King James Version (KJV)

Through Christ, the saint have been restored to what Adam had and given access to the gift of eternal life:

"14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city." Revelation 22:14 King James Version (KJV)

Jesus is the tree of life which gives us eternal life.

And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. John 10:28 King James Version (KJV)