In reference to 1 John 3....
First start with 1 John 1:8-10
1Jn 1 (NKJV)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
⁸ If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
⁹ If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
¹⁰ If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us.
Cross reference to verse 9
Rom 3 (NKJV)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
⁹ What then? Are we better than they? Not at all. For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.
¹⁰ As it is written: "There is none righteous, no, not one;
¹¹ There is none who understands; There is none who seeks after God.
¹² They have all turned aside; They have together become unprofitable; There is none who does good, no, not one."
So in 1 John 1 the author says there is none righteous...all have sinned. If we say we are without sin we make God a liar....
Then in chapter 3 the author seems to contradict himself....but did he?