Naomi25
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- Aug 10, 2016
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Correct. But it is still the decision of the individual to take the mark. It cannot be forced, meaning this isn't a deal that the devil can do whenever he wants to. God, on the other hand, can deal his children with the seal of promise. In your previous reply, it sounded like you were asking if the evil one had a seal of his own that he could put on humans whenever, to which I reply "no" as God would never give him such a power.
No, I did not mean to imply that Satan has the power to give such a mark at will. Indeed, I believe that such a "mark" isn't a physical mark at all, but a sign of allegiance, if you will. Forehead and hand signifies thoughts and deeds. Just as we, who are 'sealed' with God's seal, follow him with our thoughts and deeds, for one to have the 'mark' of the beast, he must make the choice to follow him with their thoughts and deeds. That is a conscious choice.
However, everything in the NT tells us that sins can be repented of. Indeed, the only "unforgivable" sin is:
“Truly, I say to you, all sins will be forgiven the children of man, and whatever blasphemies they utter, but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is guilty of an eternal sin”— Mark 3:28–29
The context of this is where people were saying the miracles Jesus did were done with the power of Satan. So, I believe we are to take the above verse in this manner; if a person constantly attributes to Satan what is is done by the power of God—that is, if one makes a flagrant, willful, decisive decisions that the Spirit’s testimony about Jesus is satanic...then that person never has forgiveness.
But beyond this? How are we to say that a person cannot repent of poor decisions and actions? Is that not what every single Christian has done? If there comes a point where suddenly that clause comes into effect, where is the verses that spells it out?
The passage that talks of the mark speaks of people being decieved by signs and wonders, and then being forced to have 'the mark' to buy and sell.
Three things to note specifically from this passage: many people come to the truth after being decieved, and Christ hasn't yet turned away one. Second, the text doesn't state anywhere that this is a "cut off point" for forgiveness. Third: a physical 'mark' is not necessary for someone to either comply with an ideology, or to need to buy or sell. Consider the historical precedent: When John was writing Revelation a very similar scenario was playing out in the Roman Empire for the current Christians. For Christians to be able to work, they had to be members of trade guilds. These trade guilds had certain requirements for membership. These requirements were usually regular meetings that involved sacrifices to the patron gods and to the 'emperor god'. Often it invovled temple prostitution as well. So, the Christians were finding that to work...to buy and sell, they had to be a part (thought and deed) of something that their faith called abhorent and blasphemous. To worship Jesus, they had to refuse those things, but then they couldn't work. But...no 'mark' was required, apart from allegiance.
So, as you can see, there really is no biblical need, or proof, for people to be receiving a physical mark that means they have suddenly commited the unforgivable sin. There is no teaching about that. Those who have been found, at the end judgement to have 'received the mark of the beast' are those who clearly openly welcomed serving this world thought and deed, with no thought of repentance. In other words...it's not that different than it is today. Those who repent are saved, those who do not, are not.