And plenty here who are in denial re the Deity of our Lord Jesus Christ-thanks for the link
@RedFan.
J.
Ok
@RedFan and
@Johann for being brave and courageous proponents of your different type Jesus Christ not found in scripture as my savior.
I expect you to both explain your view in some detail as to why 1 Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1b make your case. Good luck...you will need it and there is not enough of it I'm afraid.
So you now have succumbed to finding some uncertain peculiar crumbs of so-called proof for your theory of the deity in Christ in a loser like Wallace. When the preponderance of evidence, over 99% found in scripture clearly shows Christ as the Son of God and not a, or the God, the creator Father, although as a god.
For starters, Wallace’s argument is inconsistent. He excludes 2 Thessalonians 1:12 from Sharp’s Rule application because it contains the proper name “Jesus Christ” attached to the title “Lord,” yet he applies the rule to Titus 2:13 and 1 Peter 1:1, which have similar constructions with different titles (“Savior” and “God,” respectively). How hypocritical and dead wrong of him.
First as the shaky backdrop it is...
Scholars debate the exact translation of this verse, and the two sides of that debate are seen in the various translations.
Some scholars believe that “glory” is used in an adjectival sense, and that the verse should be translated as above in the NIV. Versions that follow suit are the KJV and the Amplified Version. Many other versions, such as the Revised Version, American Standard Version, NAS, Moffatt, RSV, NRSV, Douay, New American Bible, NEB, etc., translate the verse very differently. The NASB is a typical example. It reads, “…looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus.” The difference between the translations is immediately apparent.
And further, in Titus 2:13, the translation is more accurate to say 'our god and savior' both lower cased. Christ is a 'god' and also 'our savior' conditional however on his Father, who is the God the true Savior. And Wallace knows this and yet continues in the lie to deceive as he has done to you.
The NEV translation:
(Tit 2:11) For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men.
(Tit 2:12) It trains us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and Godly lives in this present age,
(Tit 2:13) as we look for the blessed hope: The manifesting of the glory of the great God, and of our Saviour Jesus Christ,
(Tit 2:14) who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify to himself a people for his own possession, zealous of good works.
Titus 2:13-14 is clearly saying that the great God, who is our Father, who is the source, along with his Son Jesus Christ, who gave himself,....etc.
How can one mistake this thought is beyond me...this is the blessed hope.
The phrase “our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ” does not imply that Jesus is God, but rather that Jesus is a separate being, exalted by God and given authority over creation.
John 1:1-5, Hebrews 1:3 for example clearly distinguish between God the Father and Jesus Christ. Why ignore it here is beyond me! On eis the true one God and the other the Son a god and proxy of the Father.
And the phrase “glory of God” in Titus 2:13 refers to Jesus as the manifestation or representation of God’s glory, rather than as God Himself.
From a biblical Unitarian source...
"The Granville Sharp rule has been successfully challenged. The point is that when Scripture refers to “our Great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,” it can mean two beings—both the “Great God,” and the “Savior,” Jesus Christ. The highly regarded Trinitarian Henry Alford gives a number of reasons as to why the grammar of the Greek does not force the interpretation of the passage to make Christ God..."
Now for 2 Peter 1:1b..
Some Trinitarians as you, also try to force this verse using the Granville Sharp Rule of Greek grammar. This is not a valid proof of the Trinity at all...desperate folks will still say otherwise...regrettable..
This verse is generally translated one of two ways: “Our God and Savior Jesus Christ” (Revised Version, RSV, NIV, etc.) and “God and our Savior Jesus Christ (KJV). Although it is possible that the word “God” (Greek = theos) is here being used in its lesser sense, i.e., of a man with divine authority (see Hebrews 1:8), it is more likely that it is referring to the true God as distinct from Jesus Christ. This is certainly the way the context is leading, because the very next verse speaks of them separately....READ 1 Peter 1:2
(2Pe 1:1)
Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those that have obtained the same precious faith with us in the righteousness of our God, and the Saviour Jesus Christ.
(2Pe 1:2) Grace to you and peace be multiplied in the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord. (NEV)
They are TWO separate personalities, one God the Father Almighty and the other his Son, consistent throughout scripture.
So, continue to follow this blind man as you wish and continue to go deeper into this deadly spiritual quicksand you are both are in. You have been warned.
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Now I would like your both to respond by not just regurgitating or copying and pasting other people's work, but by explaining to me why you think this man Wallace is correct, that Jesus must be your Father and God, based on these two distant simple to understand, remote outlier verses in the NT ...with technical specifics if you dare...thx