Too many posts to keep deleting, but I thought this thread was about ground for divorce ect, not about which Bible is correct ect.
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Yes! Thank you.Too many posts to keep deleting, but I thought this thread was about ground for divorce ect, not about which Bible is correct ect.
Good Truth is rare and precioius.The position of the church and society at large is mistaken as to what Jesus was quoted as saying in the gospels. IMHO
Let's discuss.
Questions:
1) What did Jesus actually say?
2) Why did he say it?
3) If we got this wrong, where do we go from here?
The position of the church and society at large is that adultery (sexual immorality) is grounds for divorce.
And they will quote Jesus as an authority on this. But is Jesus being misquoted? Yes, I believe so.
The biggest problem is the disconnect we have with the culture that Jesus was speaking to.
The church teaches that the only grounds for divorce is adultery. (sexual immorality)
But that is not what Jesus actually said.
The basis for this teaching is found in Matthew 19:9
See the NIV translation below, taking note of verse 10 as well as verse 9. (at the very bottom of this post)
Then compare the KJV below that. Note the use of the word "fornication" which matches the NT Greek.
This makes a HUGE difference, especially when considering the cultural setting of the Israelites under the law.
Jesus was saying that the only grounds for divorce is fornication, which is sexual intercourse before marriage. (not after)
What does this mean? Both in the historical context and to the misinterpretation assigned by the church today. ???
For the Israelites, a bride's parents presented her as a virgin to her husband-to-be. The law of Moses made a provision for this.
If the husband-to-be discovered that he had been given a bride that was not a virgin, he could divorce her. (for fornication)
Unfortunately, some new husbands were making false claims in order to divorce their new brides. The fornication loophole.
Parents were allowed to challenge this claim if it was false. See Deuteronomy 22:16-18
Therefore, the KJV translation is correct and the church got it wrong.
Jesus said there is no grounds for divorce except for fornication. Now read verse 10 again.
Better not to marry? Indeed. Not if you have ANY plans to divorce.
Matthew 19:8-10 NIV
Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
10 The disciples said to him, “If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry.”
--- COMPARE ---
Matthew 19:8-10 KJV
He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives:
but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication,
and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
/
One group of students in similar fashion were stymied - unsuccessful - trying to save anyone on the campus where they tried and tried and tried daily withI've become rather frustrated (a bit stroppy, as Aunty would say) with trying to communicate the importance of what Jesus meant.
Welcome to the forum.One group of students in similar fashion were stymied - unsuccessful - trying to save anyone on the campus where they tried and tried and tried daily with
a lot of prayer and Bible reading and 'sharing' of either Bible info OR tracts about the Bible and Salvation.
Week after week they had almost no one choose to be healed (saved), and they did not understand.
Finally, I don't remember why, they STOPPED.
No more trying to save the other students (or faculty or visitors).
No more giving out tracts or info or sharing constantly.
No more frustration at not reaching people with such an important message , with Truth.
Do you happen to know "the rest of their testimony" ?
....
....
.. they did not stop praying. .......... they started trusting Jesus....
They were available to students and others who asked questions ! Only those who asked them for info or for tracts or for Salvation/healing....
And God Who Gives Growth, Gave Success! His Success. Students and others converted/ saved/ healed.
People can divorce for many reasons. It is divorce and remarriage that the bible gives only three reasons why one can do so.The position of the church and society at large is mistaken as to what Jesus was quoted as saying in the gospels. IMHO
Let's discuss.
Questions:
1) What did Jesus actually say?
2) Why did he say it?
3) If we got this wrong, where do we go from here?
The position of the church and society at large is that adultery (sexual immorality) is grounds for divorce.
And they will quote Jesus as an authority on this. But is Jesus being misquoted? Yes, I believe so.
The biggest problem is the disconnect we have with the culture that Jesus was speaking to.
The church teaches that the only grounds for divorce is adultery. (sexual immorality)
But that is not what Jesus actually said.
The basis for this teaching is found in Matthew 19:9
See the NIV translation below, taking note of verse 10 as well as verse 9. (at the very bottom of this post)
Then compare the KJV below that. Note the use of the word "fornication" which matches the NT Greek.
This makes a HUGE difference, especially when considering the cultural setting of the Israelites under the law.
Jesus was saying that the only grounds for divorce is fornication, which is sexual intercourse before marriage. (not after)
What does this mean? Both in the historical context and to the misinterpretation assigned by the church today. ???
For the Israelites, a bride's parents presented her as a virgin to her husband-to-be. The law of Moses made a provision for this.
If the husband-to-be discovered that he had been given a bride that was not a virgin, he could divorce her. (for fornication)
Unfortunately, some new husbands were making false claims in order to divorce their new brides. The fornication loophole.
Parents were allowed to challenge this claim if it was false. See Deuteronomy 22:16-18
Therefore, the KJV translation is correct and the church got it wrong.
Jesus said there is no grounds for divorce except for fornication. Now read verse 10 again.
Better not to marry? Indeed. Not if you have ANY plans to divorce.
Matthew 19:8-10 NIV
Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
10 The disciples said to him, “If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry.”
--- COMPARE ---
Matthew 19:8-10 KJV
He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives:
but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication,
and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
/
I agree with "1. Death of a spouse."People can divorce for many reasons. It is divorce and remarriage that the bible gives only three reasons why one can do so.
1. Death of a spouse.
2. Repeated adultery in a marriage by one spouse (sexual sin)
3. An unbelieving spouse no longer wishes to remain with the believer for reasons of the faith.
Matthew 19:9I agree with "1. Death of a spouse."
The others I'm not sure about.
/
Actually if Jesus uses the term sexual immorality that means all sexual sin. Adultery would be included in that would it not?I've become rather frustrated (a bit stroppy, as Aunty would say) with trying to communicate the importance of what Jesus meant.
The church says: Adultery is grounds for divorce.
Jesus says: I never said any such thing.
Divorce is a terribly damaging thing. Blessed by the church.
Yet ANOTHER good reason to DECONSTRUCT.
Working my way up to SPONTANEOUS deconstruction. - LOL
View attachment 39493
/
Welcome to the forum.Actually if Jesus uses the term sexual immorality that means all sexual sin. Adultery would be included in that would it not?
Matthew 19:8-10 KJVThe King James translation got this right.
Really cool. My husband and I both changed our position on marriage permanence studying this. We see marriage as one flesh for life---meaning separation and divorce are options but Christians should not remarry if their first spouse is still alive.The position of the church and society at large is mistaken as to what Jesus was quoted as saying in the gospels. IMHO
Let's discuss.
Questions:
1) What did Jesus actually say?
2) Why did he say it?
3) If we got this wrong, where do we go from here?
The position of the church and society at large is that adultery (sexual immorality) is grounds for divorce.
And they will quote Jesus as an authority on this. But is Jesus being misquoted? Yes, I believe so.
The biggest problem is the disconnect we have with the culture that Jesus was speaking to.
The church teaches that the only grounds for divorce is adultery. (sexual immorality)
But that is not what Jesus actually said.
The basis for this teaching is found in Matthew 19:9
See the NIV translation below, taking note of verse 10 as well as verse 9. (at the very bottom of this post)
Then compare the KJV below that. Note the use of the word "fornication" which matches the NT Greek.
This makes a HUGE difference, especially when considering the cultural setting of the Israelites under the law.
Jesus was saying that the only grounds for divorce is fornication, which is sexual intercourse before marriage. (not after)
What does this mean? Both in the historical context and to the misinterpretation assigned by the church today. ???
For the Israelites, a bride's parents presented her as a virgin to her husband-to-be. The law of Moses made a provision for this.
If the husband-to-be discovered that he had been given a bride that was not a virgin, he could divorce her. (for fornication)
Unfortunately, some new husbands were making false claims in order to divorce their new brides. The fornication loophole.
Parents were allowed to challenge this claim if it was false. See Deuteronomy 22:16-18
Therefore, the KJV translation is correct and the church got it wrong.
Jesus said there is no grounds for divorce except for fornication. Now read verse 10 again.
Better not to marry? Indeed. Not if you have ANY plans to divorce.
Matthew 19:8-10 NIV
Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
10 The disciples said to him, “If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry.”
--- COMPARE ---
Matthew 19:8-10 KJV
He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives:
but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication,
and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
/
My parents generation used to joke that they "... would NEVER divorce their spouse, murder maybe, but never divorce!" - LOLI definitely think a lot of couples would stay put and not divorce is they believed remarriage was off the table for them.
That's very good that you discussed it and came to an agreement about it.Really cool. My husband and I both changed our position on marriage permanence studying this. We see marriage as one flesh for life---meaning separation and divorce are options but Christians should not remarry if their first spouse is still alive.
You are correct. It includes a broad range of sexual immorality including harlotry, adultery, incest, fornication, and idolatry. Just because King James used only one of those descriptions doesn't mean the others do not apply.Actually if Jesus uses the term sexual immorality that means all sexual sin. Adultery would be included in that would it not?
I realize this was tongue-in-cheek, but...Yes, murder is the only socially acceptable solution. - LOL
In the age my parents grew up in, you would never dream of getting a divorce. Murder maybe, but NEVER divorce.
In that particular case, perhaps the husband needs to be inserted into a wood-chipper. Feet first.I bring this out because I know many women who have been forced into marriages where they are being terribly abused (even trafficked) by their husbands. And when they come to Christ, they're told they cannot divorce this man who is subjecting them to such things. That isn't true.
Wow. That's a great cultural insight. I hope all readers got what you were writing. Thanks.Within that cultural context... divorce was meant to be a mercy.
Wow. That's a great cultural insight. I hope all readers got what you were writing. Thanks.
But... how do we balance that with this?
Matthew 19:8 NIV
Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard.
But it was not this way from the beginning.
]
I appreciate the desire for justice .... in this case, I'd settle for divorce and handing them over to God.In that particular case, perhaps the husband needs to be inserted into a wood-chipper. Feet first.