Okay, I'm not sure if this post presents the "unsolved problems" that Grafted Branch was speaking of above, but I'm going to speak to this anyway, if you don't mind.
With that in mind, let's assume the thousand years and satan's little season does occur before the 2nd coming.
Okay, well, I would submit that it can't really be otherwise.
2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
It seems to me that what God is doing in verse 9, until He decides to no longer keep doing that, that that is what is preventing verse 10 from occurring in the meantime. That should at least tell us that He continues to do what is recorded in verse 9 until the day of the Lord comes as a thief in the night.
Well, yes, except I might change the wording of "until He decides to no longer keep doing that, that that is what is preventing verse 10 from occurring" a bit. Maybe this is synonymous with what you're saying, but God is well aware of the time ~ our time ~ that He has allotted for all these things to take place. If you understand it that way, then yes, we're right together on this. Verse 10 will occur when He has finished with what God is doing behind what is in verse 9: keeping His promise of calling and saving all of Israel. And when He has finished that work, then Satan will be released for his little season, and then the day of the Lord will come. And this will all happen at the times appointed by God. Using a good concordance, a good exercise would be to do a word search on 'appointed.' Maybe all this is in line with your thinking. If so, then great!
Which BTW, undeniably destroys the Preterist interpretation of the day of Lord since it would mean God is no longer doing what He is doing in verse 9 if He instead has shifted gears and is doing what is recorded in verse 10. It's a no brainer then, the day of the Lord has absolutely zero to do with anything involving the first century, and verse 9 proves it.
Right. Preterism... Yeah, stay away from that. :)
Which then brings us to, assuming the thousand years and satan's little does occur before the 2nd coming, when would God no longer be doing what He is doing in verse 9, but is doing what is recorded in verse 10 instead?
Hm. Not sure if I'm answering this or not, really; the question is a bit confusing. But God will "no longer be doing what He is doing in verse 9" before ~ this is what actually brings on ~ Satan's little season; God will have completed His Israel and brought the millennium to a close. And
then... the day of the Lord will come.
Most Amils, and a lot of us Premils as well, except for maybe Pretribbers, take the day of the Lord to be meaning the 2nd coming. Obviously, the 2nd coming can't happen at the beginning of satan's little season though...
Exactly...
...which means God is still doing what He is doing in verse 9 during satan's little season...
No, before Satan's little season. God finishes His execution of what He's doing in verse 9, and then... Maybe the best way to say it most simply is that Satan's little season is...
between verse 9 and 10. See above.
Yet, some Amils argue that the doors of salvation are closed once the thousand years end.
As I said to Grafted Branch above, David, it's not really a matter of "salvation ending," really, it's just that at that time, God will have brought all His elect ~ Jew and Gentile, people of every tongue, tribe and nation ~ into His Israel. In other words, I guess we could put it this way, that the salvation of the Lord will be complete. He will have saved all that He has purposed to save ~ all that were chosen before the foundation of the world, as Paul puts it in Ephesians 1. God's purposes cannot be thwarted (Job 42:2).
Which would have to mean the beginning of satan's little season is the beginning of the day of the Lord.
Ah, well, maaaaaaaaaaaaaaybe. :) I guess it depends on what is really meant by the day of the Lord; the day of the Lord doesn't have to be the day He returns; 'day' can refer to a time period, or a season, a span of literal days or some period of time. So, "the day of the Lord" could refer to Satan's little season and Jesus's actual return, which together could actually be some short period of time. I don't think this is very important, to be honest. Satan's little season
"will be cut short for the sake of the elect" (Jesus, Matthew 24:22, Mark 13:20), and then He will return. In my opinion, whether this is all the day of the Lord or the day of the Lord refers specifically to the day of His return is... not important; it seems to me unimportant to make that distinction.
Which would then have to mean Christ doesn't return like a thief in the night after all, if one is applying the beginning of the day of the Lord to the beginning of satan's little season since it is not reasonable that Christ returns at the beginning of satan's little season rather than at the end of it, assuming his little season happens in this age.
Okay, well, I guess what I'm saying is, this seems a bit over-analytical to me. :)
Grace and peace to you, David!