Daniels 70-Weeks Timeline

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covenantee

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Hebrew anbd Greek are different in case you didn't know! No charge for the lesson.

Now prove that Jesus being the Prince of peace demands that He is the second named prince in daniel 9.
Describe the difference between a Hebrew prince and a Greek prince.

With Scripture, of course.

Those degrees of yours aren't helping you.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Josephus never mentions Daniel in his voluminous "Wars of the Jews". Stop making false claims.

Wrong again! But thanks for trying. and the answer is no I will not spend days reading to pull a few quotes out to prove you lying. It appears you have access. Read it again for yourself. Or remember google can be your friend.




Yes, you certainly cannot. So why did you get hung up on it?
 

Ronald Nolette

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If you're unable to quote Scripture as written instead of imposing your own arbitrary substitutions, maybe you should get refunds for all of those degrees that you purchased.

So you do not believe that Messiah teh Prince in Daniel 9 is Jesus?? Wow!

See I quopte it and then allow History to identify who the prophet referred to. Sorry about what you do. Every church I know of, recognizes through their "arbitrary substitutions", that Messiah the prince can only be Jesus. Maybe you should find a new church if they are teaching you He isn't.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Why aren't John Wycliffe and John Nelson Darby!! in your list?

They were not part of the entrire list. but nice dodge in not even mentionjikng that the vast majority of English and foreign translations use ruler instead of prince there. But that is beside the point. I recognize Jesus is called prince as I called HIm that in the first Prince in Daniel 9 24-27. but we are debating the second prince of the people who will come and destroy the sanctuary,
 

Ronald Nolette

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Strong's Exhaustive Concordance
chief ruler, magistrate, prince
Present participle of archo; a first (in rank or power) -- chief (ruler), magistrate, prince, ruler.

Yep I even posted that as well! But that is the fourth definition. You do know that Strongs wirte things in the order of import and that the first is to be used unless compelled by grammar not to.

But like I told you, outside of the translators in english oif the Bible way back when- Archon is never used for prince outside of the bible in koine Greek!

But once again this is irrelavent for Even if it was a completely lgitimate translation- it still does not mean the prince of the people to come is Jesus as you demand!
 

Ronald Nolette

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Why are you searching uninspired sources to attempt to invalidate inspired Scripture?

Boy you really8 are grasping at straws. If you do not understand how to use rules of grammar and languagfe dictionaries- you are a pseudo- biblical student.

So You think the writers of King James were as infallible as the original writers of SCripture? IOW are you a king James only person?
 

Ronald Nolette

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Describe the difference between a Hebrew prince and a Greek prince.

With Scripture, of course.

Those degrees of yours aren't helping you.

Those straws are getting thinner and thinner. I did not say the office or rank was different but the language was different. do try to read my posts while you are awake and stop twisting my words. But to play along with your foolishness. as far as rank- there may or may not be a difference. It all depends on how a king sets his rule up (or queen, don't want you to go down another rabbit trail for me not including queens).

But Hebrew is "sar" and means prince primarily prince or noble under a king. the other Hebrew word used for prince is "nasi" which primarily means an exalted one which can be a king, sheik, prince, noblemn like sar. But sar is the primary word for prince.

Now Greek, the primary word for prince is archegos which means prince. Archion means ruler- actually chief or highest ruler (from the root arche) which can be a prince, captain, nobleman, etc. but archin is not used to define th e office of prince, but the power of a prince, king, nobleman etc.

Once agian no charge for showing you how to look up grammar.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Describe the difference between a Hebrew prince and a Greek prince.

With Scripture, of course.

Those degrees of yours aren't helping you.

I gave y0ou the uses, now I will let you look up from a concordance or biblical dictionary of linguistic workbook of OT and NT books by language and discover for yourself. then maybe you will ber more apt to lisdten instead of wading in waters you are ignorant of.
 

covenantee

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Josephus never mentions Daniel in his voluminous "Wars of the Jews". Stop making false claims.

Wrong again! But thanks for trying. and the answer is no I will not spend days reading to pull a few quotes out to prove you lying. It appears you have access. Read it again for yourself. Or remember google can be your friend.

You claimed: "Even Josephus, th enon believer he was, recognized Titus fulfilled Daniel as far as the destruction of the city."

Whether you spend days or the rest of your life or not is irrelevant because the reality is the same: Josephus never mentions Daniel in "Wars of the Jews".

Reality exposes liars.

You have access. You're just too indolent or incognizant to recognize it.
 
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Knightmanj

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Yes there won’t be a future 70th week to do with any antichrist but this belief is a different view

'Our mid-tribulation does not view the Rapture at the sounding of the seventh trumpet, in Rev. 11:15, as the Mid-tribulation in the past.'

What about the events in Revelation?

This is a different than most views of Daniels 70 weeks. Most people put Daniels 70th week in the future and call it the time of Jacobs trouble or the great tribulation but the time table below shows a different interpretation which matches history. Remember there are no coincidences in the bible.

The vision of the angle Gabriel and the prophecy of the 70 weeks was an answer to Daniels prayer in Daniel 9:4-19. Daniels is praying to God and asking for mercy as he knew that the prophet Jeremiah had prophesied that the captivity would last for 70 years. The law of Moses states that they need to repent and turn back to God but the 70 years was almost up and the Jews were still not repenting. We see in the verses below that Daniel is pleading to God for mercy.

Daniel 9:17-19
17 “Now, our God, hear the prayers and petitions of your servant. For your sake, Lord, look with favor on your desolate sanctuary. 18 Give ear, our God, and hear; open your eyes and see the desolation of the city that bears your Name. We do not make requests of you because we are righteous, but because of your great mercy. 19 Lord, listen! Lord, forgive! Lord, hear and act! For your sake, my God, do not delay, because your city and your people bear your Name.”

The prophecy given by the angel Gabriel

Daniel 9:24-27
24 “Seventy ‘sevens’ are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the Most Holy Place. 25 “Know and understand this: From the time the word goes out to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One the ruler, comes, there will be seven ‘sevens,’ and sixty-two ‘sevens.’ It will be rebuilt with streets and a trench, but in times of trouble. 26 After the sixty-two ‘sevens,’ the Anointed One will be put to death and will have nothing The people of the ruler who will come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end will come like a flood: War will continue until the end, and desolations have been decreed. 27 He will confirm a covenant with many for one ‘seven.’ In the middle of the ‘seven’ he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And at the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him.

The 70 years would become 70 weeks of foreign control. The Jews would go back and rebuild Jerusalem but not as free people but under foreign control.


The 70 weeks are 490 years of prophecy.

The command by the angel Gabriel is to know and understand the prophecy. The decree (the word to go and rebuild Jerusalem) would trigger the understanding of the time line of the vision. Thus the decree of king Cyrus is the key to know and understand the 70 weeks. The decree of king Cyrus gives us a concrete date and point in time of the 70 weeks.

Below are the time lines of each set of weeks

605 B.C. The start of the 70 weeks Daniel and the Jews are taken into captivity. (time goes backwards from the time of Daniel vision)

587 B.C. Jerusalem is destroyed by Babylon the start of the 7 weeks (the 7 weeks runs parallel to some of the 62 weeks)

170/1 B.C. Onias 3rd is murdered (cut off and has nothing) the second anointed one the last of the Zadokite priesthood which was the start of the 70th week.

538 B.C. King Cyrus issues a decree to go and rebuild Jerusalem and Joshua (the first anointed one who was to come) goes back to rebuild Jerusalem. This is the end of the 7 weeks which was 49 years after 587 B.C. when Jerusalem was destroyed.


167 B.C. Antiochus Epiphanies 4th desecrates the temple ½ way through the 70th week. The abomination that caused desolation.

164/3 B.C. Antiochus Epiphanies 4th dies and the temple sacrifice is reestablished the end of the 70th week. (the end is poured out on him)

War continued during and until the end of the 70th week

The purposes of the 70 weeks in Daniel 9:24 were fulfilled by the Jews who remained loyal to God and resisted apostasy.

605 B.C.-171 B.C. 62 weeks or 434 years

587 B.C.-538 B.C. 7 weeks or 49 years

170/1 B.C.-164/3 B.C. 70th week or 7 years

Some versions of the bible use the word Messiah instead of the anointed one but that was a mistake and not the original meaning.

Below are three main points to show that Jesus wasn't any part of the prophecy of the 70 weeks


1-Some people think that the 70 weeks start in 445 BC, but this is 160 years after 605 B.C. when the Jews were taken into captivity. If this was the case then the curse of the covenant would not come into effect on those who did not repent-in 535 B.C. when Jeremiah's 70 years prophecy expired. Instead it would come their grandchildren and great grandchildren which would violate the principal of the Law of Moses that children pay the price for their parents and grandparents sins.


2-It says that the anointed one will come after 62 & 7 weeks but he is cut off after 62 weeks. How can the anointed one if it is one person come 49 years after he is cut off? This proves that it is two different people. If it is Jesus how could He come 49 years after he dies?


3-Not once in the bible did Jesus or any of the new testament writers ever claim that Jesus fulfilled any parts of the 70 weeks. This would not be missed and if it was Jesus it would prove who Jesus is to the Jews Especially in the book of Matthew. Thus Jesus is not either of the anointed ones in the prophecy of the 70 weeks.

This time line takes away the possibility of a future 70th week or even a future seven year tribulation.
 

covenantee

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Yep I even posted that as well! But that is the fourth definition. You do know that Strongs wirte things in the order of import and that the first is to be used unless compelled by grammar not to.

But like I told you, outside of the translators in english oif the Bible way back when- Archon is never used for prince outside of the bible in koine Greek!

But once again this is irrelavent for Even if it was a completely lgitimate translation- it still does not mean the prince of the people to come is Jesus as you demand!
Readers will note the impeccable grammar in the quoted post.:)

Go exhume and excoriate John Wycliffe for not knowing about Strong's, which would appear more than four centuries later.

Let us know what John says.
 
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covenantee

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Boy you really8 are grasping at straws. If you do not understand how to use rules of grammar and languagfe dictionaries- you are a pseudo- biblical student.

So You think the writers of King James were as infallible as the original writers of SCripture? IOW are you a king James only person?
Readers will note the impeccable grammar in the quoted post.:)
 
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covenantee

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Those straws are getting thinner and thinner. I did not say the office or rank was different but the language was different. do try to read my posts while you are awake and stop twisting my words. But to play along with your foolishness. as far as rank- there may or may not be a difference. It all depends on how a king sets his rule up (or queen, don't want you to go down another rabbit trail for me not including queens).

But Hebrew is "sar" and means prince primarily prince or noble under a king. the other Hebrew word used for prince is "nasi" which primarily means an exalted one which can be a king, sheik, prince, noblemn like sar. But sar is the primary word for prince.

Now Greek, the primary word for prince is archegos which means prince. Archion means ruler- actually chief or highest ruler (from the root arche) which can be a prince, captain, nobleman, etc. but archin is not used to define th e office of prince, but the power of a prince, king, nobleman etc.

Once agian no charge for showing you how to look up grammar.
Readers will note the impeccable grammar in the quoted post.:)

Go exhume and excoriate John Wycliffe, John Nelson Darby !!, et al; about how your Hebrew and Greek is superior to theirs.

Let us know what they say.
 
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covenantee

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I gave y0ou the uses, now I will let you look up from a concordance or biblical dictionary of linguistic workbook of OT and NT books by language and discover for yourself. then maybe you will ber more apt to lisdten instead of wading in waters you are ignorant of.
Readers will note the impeccable grammar in the quoted post.:)
 
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Marty fox

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Yes. I asked what about the events in the book of Revelation? Do you believe that's Daniel's last week?

Sorry but you question question didn’t post.

No I don’t believe any of the 70 weeks are mentioned in revelation.

Daniel was given the message as a reply to Daniels prayer in the beginning of Daniel chapter 9 it was for the Jews at that time not to the far future Jew or gentile people.
 

Davy

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Sure, but the prophets usually spoke in the language of the old covenant because that is all his readers could visualize. However, the New Testament writers interpreted O.T. prophecy with a new understanding. A classic case is the temple where St Paul says, Jesus is the cornerstone, apostles and prophets are the foundations and we are the building. (Ephesians 2:19-22)

Oh, so now if your interpretation isn't accepted, (from men's doctrines, you didn't come up with what you're pushing), you now are forced to SPIRITUALIZE the Scripture into your THEORY instead of accepting what it plainly says???

That is strong... evidence that you intend to create chaos and corruption away from true Bible understanding. If you tried to do that with a course in electronics you'd be thrown out of the classroom as being too dangerous an individual.
 

covenantee

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Oh, so now if your interpretation isn't accepted, (from men's doctrines, you didn't come up with what you're pushing), you now are forced to SPIRITUALIZE the Scripture into your THEORY instead of accepting what it plainly says???

That is strong... evidence that you intend to create chaos and corruption away from true Bible understanding. If you tried to do that with a course in electronics you'd be thrown out of the classroom as being too dangerous an individual.
Scripture would never ever spiritualize anything, now would it.

It always keeps everything LITERAL and TEMPORAL and CARNAL.

Just the way that dispen premil demands.

Just the way that you demand.
 
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