But you have not reconciled those passages with John 14:19. --"The world sees Me no more."
Which is because you have not "rightly divided" what is written of this world from that which is written of the kingdom...what is of the world, and what is not.
I do not see any conflict between these various passages--why should I try to reconcile that which does not require reconciliation? I do not see any conflict. What conflict do you see?
I really dislike when the "conflict" that someone else sees is not being verbalized though it is put forward as "obvious" to them! It leaves me to *guess* what their conflict is?
Are you suggesting that Jesus' "not being seen anymore" conflicts with the notion that Jesus "comes" in 70 AD? If so, this is a misrepresentation of the position that I put forward.
I did *not* suggest that Jesus' *2nd Coming* takes place in 70 AD, nor that he physically and literally appears in the destruction of the temple event. Rather, I'm suggesting that he "comes" in the same way that God "comes" to judge Israel in OT events of judgment, such as the Babylonian judgment.
This is an entirely different type of "coming," which does not involve Jesus' physical appearance. Rather, he comes in the form of the historical judgment, which suggests that he is orchestrating the event as God.
This non-eschatological "coming" of Jesus portrays him as in opposition to a strictly eschatological coming of his physical person. Even the presence of his physical person, bringing messianic healing as such, is portrayed as non-eschatological in Luke 17!
Luke 17.22 Then he said to his disciples, “The time is coming when you will long to see one of the days of the Son of Man, but you will not see it.
Here we see that "days of the Son of Man" can be both non-eschatological and representative of Jesus' human presence. But then we see later that a "day of the Son of Man" can also be non-eschatological and void of his human presence:
Luke 17.30 “It will be just like this on the day the Son of Man is revealed. 31 On that day no one who is on the housetop, with possessions inside, should go down to get them. Likewise, no one in the field should go back for anything."
And so, the "Day of the Lord" can represent either Jesus' human presence or only his divine presence in the judgment. It can be either eschatological or non-eschatological.
That was, I think, what Jesus meant to say, that Jews should not just be looking for some eschatological phenomena that brings instant deliverance, but rather, recognize the signs of the times, that the Jewish nation was disobedient and in danger of imminent judgment. In this case, the Days of the Son of Man, as Jesus' physical presence to do miracles, would be missed. But the Day of the Son of Man as divine judgment would instead be revealed.