Why is sexual love "eros" missing from the Bible?

[christsavedme]

Thanks for your work on this...

I don't think you mentioned "even sinners love those who love them" is agape also.

The points I was trying to make are two fold.

First lust is not love and is one of the most serious sins. It is common to bring this into relationships even marriage and the outcome is often disastrous.

Second, for the serious believer, being 'in the Spirit' means being motivated by God's Love as God is Love.
So in sexual encounter in marriage, His Love, not our lust or flesh passions should be the motivator if we are to enjoy the blessing of the act as He intended.

The absence of Eros, (which is usually associated with lust) in the NT was an attempt to underline that it has no place in Christian life.

"The fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, self-control; against such things there is no law. And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires."

The specific Greek word "eros" does not appear in the Bible, but the concept of passionate, romantic, and sexual love is certainly present in various biblical passages and stories. However, you're right to observe that erotic love seems to play a less prominent role compared to other types of love described in scripture.

1. The Bible does contain vivid depictions of sexual love, particularly in the Song of Songs (also called Song of Solomon). This poetic book celebrates the passion and desire between lovers in very sensual terms(Lumimpah, 2024; Turan, 2007).

2. The Greek word "eros" was associated with pagan love deities in Hellenistic culture, which may have led biblical authors to avoid using that specific term(Domoney-Lyttle, 2019).

3. The Bible emphasizes other forms of love, like "agape" (selfless, unconditional love) and "philia" (brotherly love), which were seen as more aligned with God's nature(Domoney-Lyttle, 2019).

4. Some scholars argue that elements of erotic love are present in biblical metaphors for God's relationship with his people, even if not explicitly labeled as such(Turan, 2007).

5. Cultural and historical context played a role - ancient Hebrew did not have a direct equivalent to the Greek concept of eros(Domoney-Lyttle, 2019).

Tnterpretations of love and sexuality in the Bible have varied greatly across different traditions and time periods. Some have read erotic themes into passages that others interpret more spiritually(Lumimpah, 2024).

 

[Mark51]

Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -

"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."

All Love is God’s love — sexual desire, romantic love, and attachment

This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek…

medium.com

The human capacity to show love is an expression of God’s wisdom and loving concern for mankind. Interestingly, the ancient Greeks had four words for “love.” One was e'ros: denoting romantic love associated with sex attraction.

Writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures had no occasion to use e'ros, though the Septuagint uses forms of it at Proverbs 7:18, and there are other references to romantic love in the Hebrew Scriptures. For instance, we read that Isaac “fell in love with” Rebekah. (Genesis 24:67) A truly notable example of this kind of love is found in the case of Jacob, who apparently fell in love with beautiful Rachel at first sight. In fact, “Jacob proceeded to serve seven years for Rachel, but in his eyes they proved to be like some few days because of his love for her.” (Genesis 29:9-11, 18, 20) The Song of Solomon also deals with romantic love between a shepherd and a maiden. But it cannot be emphasized too strongly that this kind of love, which may be a source of much contentment and joy, should be shown only in harmony with God’s righteous standards. The Bible tells us that it is only with the love of a man’s own lawfully wedded wife that he may “be in an ecstasy constantly.”-Proverbs 5:15-20.

 

[GodsGrace]

Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -

"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."

All Love is God’s love — sexual desire, romantic love, and attachment

This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek…

medium.com

I'm bad Arthur81.
Haven't read through the above.
But, judging from the threads you begin, I'd say Eros might be missing from the bible because it's forbidden, as some gnostics believed and as John McArthur believes today.
Intetesting stuff.

 

[KUWN]

Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -

"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."

All Love is God’s love — sexual desire, romantic love, and attachment

This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek…

medium.com

I was just looking around at various posts and saw this one. The following statement caught my attention:

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The word eros does appear in the LXX, twice in fact.