Why is sexual love "eros" missing from the Bible?

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Arthur81

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Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -


"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."

 

Behold

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"Sexual Love", is a phrase that actually means... "to confuse lust for sexual intimacy, with Love".

The "Ghetto is"... "rock and roll"....... which is a term that literally means : "love to fornicate is the world's definition of LOVE".

Lady Gaga had a recent song... "LOVE GAME", and that is typical.........as this is "i see you want to have sex with me, and i feel the same, so lets play a LOVE GAME".

So, that is why its not in the bible. @Arthur81

However, the Bible understands, strong desire, and intimate passion, which is sexual intimacy, and this is God given... however, God has designed these normal and very powerful desires to be satisfied only within the boundary of a "man and woman", inside a Marriage.
 

Arthur81

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The NRSV updated edition 2021 has "divorce" mentioned 33 times in 29 verses. How many men or women in the pulpit are divorced, and not with the moral exceptions given by Jesus in Matthew 19? How easily "divorce" has been accepted in fundamentalist/evangelical circles even in the pulpits; but the verses used to condemn all gays as sodomizers are only 6 or 7 verses through the entire Bible.

How many times has that female heretic that is Trump's spiritual advisor been divorced? I believe it is 3 times. In the first divorce she and a man were fornicating even while married to others. It is claimed Trump could quote 3 of her sermons from the past that impressed him so. No doubt it was those teaching the false prosperity gospel, and that is apparently what his conversion was all about.

What a predicament we are in, that the only choice we have to defeat the Communists(Democrats) is Trump. Yes, I strayed off topic. ;)
 

Behold

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but the verses used to condemn all gays as sodomizers are only 6 or 7 verses through the entire Bible.

Why are you still trying to justify Gay Sex Life, as "love", @Arthur81 ?

Its not love., its not moral, and its not natural.

You should find a new ministry, as "supporting Gay Sex Rights" is really not what a Christian should be doing.

Stop anytime you can see the Light.
 
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ScottA

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Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -


"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."


The Hebrew points rather to the word "Qal", meaning "know" or "knew."

In other words, lust is not mentioned of Adam and Eve, although temptation was. But when Adam "knew" Eve they didn't just "make out" or cuddle and I am quite sure they "loved" it :Broadly:. Hard to say that with a straight face asxx
 
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Behold

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"knew" is usually one term used to describe conjugal encounters. Adam knew his wife, etc....

"to know" is also the definition of Spiritual Union with God.

Notice.
= Regarding CHRISTianity.. for God and Christ "to KNOW" you, means you are born again.

"ONE with God".."IN CHRIST".= spiritually, is like being "one flesh with your wife or husband"... in the natural realm.

So, when Jesus told some disciples.....>>>"i never KNEW YOU"... "I dont KNOW YOU"< that is because they are not born again.

See, if they were born again, they would be "one with GOD".. "in Christ"... and "Christ in YOU< the Hope of Glory"..

They would be the "temple of the Holy Spirit"..

See all that?
God Would certainly "know you", if they are in you, and you are in them.........and that is to be born again..

So.. READER........ if Jesus does not "know you" when you die, then "Depart from ME, i never KNEW YOU"..., just like he told those Disciples who ALSO were not born again.

Jesus said.. '"YOU MUST be born again".. or He does not "Know you."
 

Wick Stick

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My concordance says it's used twice, both in Proverbs...

7:18 ἐλθὲ καὶ ἀπολαύσωμεν φιλίας ἕως ὄρθρου δεῦρο καὶ ἐγκυλισθῶμεν ἔρωτι
Come, let us take our fill of love until the morning: let us solace ourselves with loves.

30:16 ᾅδης καὶ ἔρως γυναικὸς καὶ τάρταρος καὶ γῆ οὐκ ἐμπιπλαμένη ὕδατος καὶ ὕδωρ καὶ πῦρ οὐ μὴ εἴπωσιν ἀρκεῖ
The grave; and the barren womb; the earth that is not filled with water; and the fire that saith not, It is enough.
 

Arthur81

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Of course there is! The OP is playing word games. Only the NT was written in Greek.
I have no idea where you are coming from. I agree, the Song of Solmon is full of sexual/love references. Yes, the NT was written in Greek, and the Jews translated the Hebrew OT into Greek, called the Septuagint, LXX. Explain in detail how I was playing word games. I quoted from recognize Greek experts, not my own biased opinion. Jesus and the Apostles quoted from the LXX.
 

Arthur81

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"to know" is also the definition of Spiritual Union with God.

Notice.
= Regarding CHRISTianity.. for God and Christ "to KNOW" you, means you are born again.

"ONE with God".."IN CHRIST".= spiritually, is like being "one flesh with your wife or husband"... in the natural realm.

So, when Jesus told some disciples.....>>>"i never KNEW YOU"... "I dont KNOW YOU"< that is because they are not born again.

See, if they were born again, they would be "one with GOD".. "in Christ"... and "Christ in YOU< the Hope of Glory"..

They would be the "temple of the Holy Spirit"..

See all that?
God Would certainly "know you", if they are in you, and you are in them.........and that is to be born again..

So.. READER........ if Jesus does not "know you" when you die, then "Depart from ME, i never KNEW YOU"..., just like he told those Disciples who ALSO were not born again.

Jesus said.. '"YOU MUST be born again".. or He does not "Know you."
Behold, I've read the things you post in various threads, and I've come to believe you are either a troll, or extremely ignorant!
 
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Ronald Nolette

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Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -


"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."

Actually, eros love is a sensul (physical) or passionate love. It is not in and of itself an evil love.

If we say in English "I love hot dogs" that would be eros. If we say last night I made love to my wife, that also is eros and is not evil. It is just physical. While phileo is a friendship or brotherly type love and agape is pure love eros describes physical. context determines if it is evil or not.
 

Arthur81

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Actually, eros love is a sensul (physical) or passionate love. It is not in and of itself an evil love.

If we say in English "I love hot dogs" that would be eros. If we say last night I made love to my wife, that also is eros and is not evil. It is just physical. While phileo is a friendship or brotherly type love and agape is pure love eros describes physical. context determines if it is evil or not.
Ronald, you are correct. I should have used the term "erotic love" to make my meaning accurate.
 
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Carl Emerson

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Erotic Love is usually associated with Lust.

It seems translators of the NT avoided the use of Eros for this reason.

Taking lust into marriage is often disasterous.

All motivation should be Agape when we are yeilding to Him and motivated by His Spirit including intimate Love in marriage.
 
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MA2444

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Maybe the translators left it out of the NT because they knew it would stir up all the gays and make them think, that's me! Me and my boyfriend love each other every night and love is of God so we're good people!
 

Bob Estey

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Thayer's on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word (for Wyttenbach, following Reiske's conjecture, long ago restored ἀγαπήσων in place of ἀγάπης, ὧν in Plutarch, sympos. quaestt. 7, 6, 3 (vol. viii., p. 835, Reiske edition)). Secular authors from (Aristotle), Plutarch on used ἀγάπησις. "The Septuagint use ἀγάπη for אַהֲבָה, Son 2:4-5; Son 2:7; Son 3:5; Son 3:10; Son 5:8; Son 7:6; Son 8:4; Son 8:6-7; ("It is noticeable that the word first makes its appearance as a current term in the Song of Solomon; -- certainly no undesigned evidence respecting the idea which the Alexandrian LXX translators had of the love in this Song" (Zezschwitz, Profangraec. u. Biblical Sprachgeist, p. 63)); Jer 2:2; Ecc 9:1; Ecc 9:6; (2Sa 13:15). It occurs besides in Sap. 3:9; 6:19. In Philo and Josephus, I do not remember to have met with it. Nor is it found in the N. T. in Acts, Mark, or James; it occurs only once in Matthew and Luke, twice in Hebrews and Revelation, but frequently in the writings of Paul, John, Peter, Jude" (Bretschn. Lex. under the word); (Philo, deus immut. sec. 14).

From Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament on "agape" love -
ἀγάπη, -ης, ἡ, love, goodwill, esteem. Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance (with Deiss., LAE, 184, 705, cf. the same writer in Constr. Quar., ii, 4; and with MM, VGT, s.v., cf. Dr. Moulton in Exp. Times, 26, 3, 139).

SYN.: φιλία G5373 *. ἀ., signifying properly (see ἀγαπάω G25 *) love which chooses its object, is taken over from LXX, where its connotation is more general, into NT, and there used exclusively to express that spiritual bond of love between God and man and between man and man, in Christ, which is characteristic of Christianity. It is thus distinct from φιλία, friendship (Jas 4:4 only), στοργή G? , natural affection (in NT only in compounds, see ἄστοργος G794 *) and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939 *. (Cf. ἀγαπάω; and v. Abbott, Essays, 70 f.; DB, vol. i., 555; Cremer, 13, 593; MM, VGT, s.v.)

About agape love, Thayer's reads ", a purely Biblical and ecclesiastical word" and the AMGL says "Outside of bibl. and eccl. books, there is no clear instance".

In addition, notice in the AMGL paragraph of synonyms, the following line -

"...and ἔρως G? , sexual love, which is not used in NT, its place being taken by ἐπιθυμία G1939" This is the sexual love "eros" that is not found anywhere in the NT or LXX.

The LXX translators appear to have sanitized the OT of the idea of sexual love. The LXX uses "agape" love for the rape of Tamar by Amnon -


"Then Amnon was seized with a very great loathing for her; indeed, his loathing was even greater than the lust(H160, ’’ahăbâh) he had felt for her. Amnon said to her, 'Get out!'” (2Sam 13:15 NRSV)

Where the NRSV has "lust" for ’ahăbâh, the LXX translated this sexual lust as agape love. What were the LXX translators thinking?

I recommend reading a scholarly online article that starts with the following sentence: "This short article intends to explain why all love is God’s love. It begins by showing how the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, in approximately 200 B.C.E. distorted a Jewish and Christian understanding of love to exclude erotic love from God’s purposes."

I have trouble equating sex with love. I'm not saying a husband and wife shouldn't have a sexual relationship, but I have trouble equating sex with love.
 

Carl Emerson

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I have trouble equating sex with love. I'm not saying a husband and wife shouldn't have a sexual relationship, but I have trouble equating sex with love.

Thanks for your work on this...

I don't think you mentioned "even sinners love those who love them" is agape also.

The points I was trying to make are two fold.

First lust is not love and is one of the most serious sins. It is common to bring this into relationships even marriage and the outcome is often disastrous.

Second, for the serious believer, being 'in the Spirit' means being motivated by God's Love as God is Love.
So in sexual encounter in marriage, His Love, not our lust or flesh passions should be the motivator if we are to enjoy the blessing of the act as He intended.

The absence of Eros, (which is usually associated with lust) in the NT was an attempt to underline that it has no place in Christian life.

"The fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, self-control; against such things there is no law. And those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires."
 
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Pearl

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Samson and Delilah. David and Bathsheba.