Who makes the choice?

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UppsalaDragby

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Poppin said:
For that reason, could you show me where Scripture tells us there is anything God does not know, for any reason.
Hi Poppin,

I am not dogmatically stating that God is not omniscient.... just helping the discussion along. :) But I cannot see anywhere in scripture where he makes that claim himself. On the other hand, there are certain verses that at least suggest that he is not:

"Then the LORD said, "The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sin so grievous that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know." (Gen 18:20-21)

and

"They have built the high places of Topheth in the Valley of Ben Hinnom to burn their sons and daughters in the fire--something I did not command, nor did it enter my mind." (Jer 7:31)

I have heard some people say in discussions like this that God knows all that is "knowable". Perhaps that is the case.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Poppin said:
Hello Ernest T. Bass :)

So (hypothetically); before God began creation, He looked down through the corridors of time and saw which men would choose Him, then proceeded with creation?

So all of creation is based on the will of men? (of course not - but this is the (il)logical conclusion, isn't it?)
Poppin
Hi

God decreed creation, but God created man with free will and allows man to use that free will. So even though God knows what choices I will make He allows me to make those choices making me culpaple for my own choices. If God predetermined for me what I do then God is culpable for my choices and actions. If God had no proceeded with creation you would not exist and never make any free will choices.
 

Poppin

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UppsalaDragby said:
Hi Poppin,
I am not dogmatically stating that God is not omniscient.... just helping the discussion along. :) But I cannot see anywhere in scripture where he makes that claim himself. On the other hand, there are certain verses that at least suggest that he is not:
"Then the LORD said, "The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sin so grievous that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know." (Gen 18:20-21)
and
"They have built the high places of Topheth in the Valley of Ben Hinnom to burn their sons and daughters in the fire--something I did not command, nor did it enter my mind." (Jer 7:31)
I have heard some people say in discussions like this that God knows all that is "knowable". Perhaps that is the case.
Hello UppsalaDragby,
What a marvelous post! Thank you :)
Some evidence, perhaps. I have not seen Gen 18:20-21 brought forward in this discussion before today. Interesting.
:)
Poppin

Ernest T. Bass said:
Hi

God decreed creation, but God created man with free will and allows man to use that free will. So even though God knows what choices I will make He allows me to make those choices making me culpaple for my own choices. If God predetermined for me what I do then God is culpable for my choices and actions. If God had no proceeded with creation you would not exist and never make any free will choices.
Ernest T. Bass,
Yes, this is logical. Can you confirm with Scripture?
Is not unregenerate man's will only to do evil continually, according to God?
Does He not counter man's fallen nature by restraining evil?
I realize God is not the author of evil, and that man is responsible for his own sin.
You said previously:

"God predetermined a group (not certain individuals) and God never predetermined what individuals would be in or out of that group. So individuals choose to be in that predetermined group or not by meeting the entrance conditions God has put in place.
So God made the choice that the group (Christian) would be saved but man has to make the choice to be in that group or not."

And my question is, does He already know who will be saved? :) The notion is brought in that He does not know.
How can this be?
Perhaps it is a question that can not be answered.
Do you believe all men fell in Adam (original sin)?
Poppin
 

Secondhand Lion

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Who makes the choice? We do. However, I do not believe it works the way I always see the argument going, between the two sides we always see arguing about this subject.

Can we agree on just one thing? God desires all to come to repentance? 2 Peter 3:9

Predestination is in the Bible. One can not hide from it or skip over it, it is there. It stands to reason that predestination is always referring to all those who would come to repentance and that God chooses to not know who specifically will come. He also chooses to "not know" other things: He chooses to separate my sin as far as the east is from the west (there is no east and west pole), He chooses to not remember. Jesus chose to not know the day or the hour....plenty of precedence in scripture for God choosing what to know and not. (At this point I must confess I do not understand this, I have the ability to forgive, but I lose understanding at the ability to forget and separate.) Praise God there are attributes of God I do not understand!

God does not do evil, have any part in evil, or take part in any evil. Can we agree on this? (okay...that is the second thing to agree on...I lied)

If those two things are not true to you, please stop reading here.

You stayed? I am really shocked.

If those two things ring true to you, would it stand to reason that God only made a way to come to repentance? Our choice is not actually to "come", but to do the only thing God intended to happen. When I "came" to Christ, I only did what was completely and totally set up for me to do before the foundation of the world. When man makes a choice, the only way he can "choose" is to go contrary to what was intended\set up. Thus we do not choose to come to Christ, we merely do what was intended for us to do all along.

The only way I am worthy is in Christ, and this is still not of me, indeed it is Christ in me. It was all set up for me to do it...if I choose something...I can only choose not to do it.

Meh, maybe I am crazy, carry on arguing the same 2 viewpoints we have been hearing all our lives, and our parents lives, and our grandparents lives, and our great grandpar.....nevermind, I am sure we can solve it all right here on this forum.
 
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KingJ

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Poppin said:
KingJ,
Thank you. I am not a Calvinist, nor am I arguing one thing over another.
However, I was hoping you would prove That God has chosen to not know something (anything/any example - not just according to the "decisions" of men).

Where did He say He would do that (limit His Own ability to KNOW)?

I agree with you here, for certain:

"Let's keep our opinions to ourselves and let scripture define God!"

For that reason, could you show me where Scripture tells us there is anything God does not know, for any reason.
God Bless!
Poppin.
God asks / makes many rhetorical questions / statements. Like calling out to Adam and Eve like He didn't know where they were. Or asking Cain where Abel was. God is certainly capable of the best educated guesses, so I am pretty sure He knew and expected what Sodom and Gommorrah were up to even if scripture states 'He went to see'. Hence I have a hard time believing He doesn't know everything even if there are scriptures like the ones UppsalaDragby posted.

The case with not knowing is imho limited purely to His make up / His ''dna''. The only scripture we need to use are those defining Him as 'just'. It is not in Him to do evil. It is not in Him to make someone specially for hell. But I don't see why He wouldn't know everything else when He knows how many hairs are on our head. When He made every cell in our body and particle in the universe.

Then there is lateral thought off what Jesus said in luke 22:42. The cup Jesus wanted passed was being covered in sin. He hates it so much that it caused His sweat to turn to blood. It could be that since God hates sin so much, He chooses to completely or partially remove Himself from watching it being done on earth. John 9:31 may support that if we take ''listen'' literally.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Poppin said:
Ernest T. Bass,
Yes, this is logical. Can you confirm with Scripture?
Is not unregenerate man's will only to do evil continually, according to God?
Does He not counter man's fallen nature by restraining evil?
I realize God is not the author of evil, and that man is responsible for his own sin.
You said previously:

"God predetermined a group (not certain individuals) and God never predetermined what individuals would be in or out of that group. So individuals choose to be in that predetermined group or not by meeting the entrance conditions God has put in place.
So God made the choice that the group (Christian) would be saved but man has to make the choice to be in that group or not."

And my question is, does He already know who will be saved? :) The notion is brought in that He does not know.
How can this be?
Perhaps it is a question that can not be answered.
Do you believe all men fell in Adam (original sin)?
Poppin
Total depravity is another invention of man.

Gen 4:7 God demonstrates with Cain that Cain had the ability to chose to do well or not do well, therefore he was not totally depraved he could only choose to not do well. God even tells Cain to rule over sin, something Cain could not do if he were totally depraved and something God would have known if Cain were totally depraved.


Peter's Jewish listeners in Acts 2, the eunuch Acts 8, the jailer Acts 16 while all in a lost state, yet they still wanted to know God's word and what to do to be saved. They were not totally depraved/unregenerate only able to do evil.

Zech 12:1 God..."formeth the spirit of man within him" God's nature would not allow Him to form a depraved spirit within me then punish me for the depraved way God formed me.

-------------------------------------------------------


God foreknew the group but did not predetermine what individuals would be in or outside the group.

Yes, God would foreknow who would choose and not choose to be in this group. Even though God foreknows, you are the one that makes the choice, God does not predetermine for you. If God predetermined for you that you would not be in this group, then God is the one culpable for you being lost and you would have excuse, Rom 1:20.


Acts 2:23 "Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:"

This is what Peter preached to those Jews that crucified Christ. God predetermined that Christ would die for the sins of man, but God did not predetermine the Jews, against their will, would crucify Christ. God used His foreknowledge and foreknew that if He sent Christ among these Jews at that particular time those Jews of their own free will would choose to crucify Christ. God foreknew also that if He sent Christ to earth at that time and among those people that Judas of HIs own free will would betray Christ. So God uses His foreknowledge and used people's free will choice to accomplish HIs own will. So God did not have to predetemine/force/cause anyone to commit any sin againts their own will. So those Jews who crucified Christ thought they were accomplishing their will but they were unknowlingly accomplished God's will. Sicnethey did if of thier own free will that is why Peter could put the blame on them "ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain". Yet if God predetermined/forced/caused these Jews or Judas to do what they did against their own free will, then God is the one culapble. It would have been God's wicked hands that murdered. How can those Jews be blamed for what God made/forced them to do? The Jews would have been just an inanimate object, a weapon God used to murder.


God sent Moses to Pharaoh with the demand to let the people go. God foreknew how Pharaoh would react and would choose to not obey. So God used Pharaoh's disobedience to accomplish His will, Rom 9:17. And if Calvinism were right and men were totally depraved, then Pharaoh would have been totally depraved and would have naturally hardened his heart without God having to force/cause him to do so. So God can set up circumstances, foreknow how people will respond in those circumstances, and use thier free will to accomplish HIs own will relieving Himself of any culpability.
 

Poppin

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Ernest T Bass
What explanation do you have for the universality of sin (all).
There must be exceptions (law of averages)
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Poppin said:
Ernest T Bass
What explanation do you have for the universality of sin (all).
There must be exceptions (law of averages)
In Rom 3 when Paul said all have sinned, "all" in that context does not mean every single person but refers to the two groups Jew and Gentile that made up all mankind. There have been Jews that sinned, Gentiles that sinned therefore all have sinned.
 

Poppin

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Ernest T. Bass said:
In Rom 3 when Paul said all have sinned, "all" in that context does not mean every single person but refers to the two groups Jew and Gentile that made up all mankind. There have been Jews that sinned, Gentiles that sinned therefore all have sinned.
Ernest T. Bass,
Have you ever met anyone who was without sin?
Poppin
 

Secondhand Lion

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Ernest T. Bass said:
Total depravity is another invention of man.

Gen 4:7 God demonstrates with Cain that Cain had the ability to chose to do well or not do well, therefore he was not totally depraved he could only choose to not do well. God even tells Cain to rule over sin, something Cain could not do if he were totally depraved and something God would have known if Cain were totally depraved.


Peter's Jewish listeners in Acts 2, the eunuch Acts 8, the jailer Acts 16 while all in a lost state, yet they still wanted to know God's word and what to do to be saved. They were not totally depraved/unregenerate only able to do evil.

Zech 12:1 God..."formeth the spirit of man within him" God's nature would not allow Him to form a depraved spirit within me then punish me for the depraved way God formed me.

-------------------------------------------------------


God foreknew the group but did not predetermine what individuals would be in or outside the group.

Yes, God would foreknow who would choose and not choose to be in this group. Even though God foreknows, you are the one that makes the choice, God does not predetermine for you. If God predetermined for you that you would not be in this group, then God is the one culpable for you being lost and you would have excuse, Rom 1:20.


Acts 2:23 "Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:"

This is what Peter preached to those Jews that crucified Christ. God predetermined that Christ would die for the sins of man, but God did not predetermine the Jews, against their will, would crucify Christ. God used His foreknowledge and foreknew that if He sent Christ among these Jews at that particular time those Jews of their own free will would choose to crucify Christ. God foreknew also that if He sent Christ to earth at that time and among those people that Judas of HIs own free will would betray Christ. So God uses His foreknowledge and used people's free will choice to accomplish HIs own will. So God did not have to predetemine/force/cause anyone to commit any sin againts their own will. So those Jews who crucified Christ thought they were accomplishing their will but they were unknowlingly accomplished God's will. Sicnethey did if of thier own free will that is why Peter could put the blame on them "ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain". Yet if God predetermined/forced/caused these Jews or Judas to do what they did against their own free will, then God is the one culapble. It would have been God's wicked hands that murdered. How can those Jews be blamed for what God made/forced them to do? The Jews would have been just an inanimate object, a weapon God used to murder.


God sent Moses to Pharaoh with the demand to let the people go. God foreknew how Pharaoh would react and would choose to not obey. So God used Pharaoh's disobedience to accomplish His will, Rom 9:17. And if Calvinism were right and men were totally depraved, then Pharaoh would have been totally depraved and would have naturally hardened his heart without God having to force/cause him to do so. So God can set up circumstances, foreknow how people will respond in those circumstances, and use thier free will to accomplish HIs own will relieving Himself of any culpability.

Did you actually use all those words to say the exact same thing I had just said or was it supposed to be something different? The only thing I would take exception with is if you think man has good in him apart from Christ. All means all...that is kinda all all can mean. Jews and Gentiles....fine...that covered all.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Poppin said:
Ernest T. Bass,
Have you ever met anyone who was without sin?
Poppin
Yes, I have met many infants and children....such is the kingdom of heaven.

Secondhand Lion said:
Did you actually use all those words to say the exact same thing I had just said or was it supposed to be something different? The only thing I would take exception with is if you think man has good in him apart from Christ. All means all...that is kinda all all can mean. Jews and Gentiles....fine...that covered all.
My point was that man is not totally depraved, as seen by what God said to Cain in Gen 4:7.

Peter's Jewish listeners in Acts 2, the eunuch Acts 8, the jailer Acts 16 while all in a lost state, yet they still wanted to know God's word and what to do to be saved. They were willing to do good even though they were lost.
 

Secondhand Lion

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Ernest T. Bass said:
Yes, I have met many infants and children....such is the kingdom of heaven.

My point was that man is not totally depraved, as seen by what God said to Cain in Gen 4:7.

Peter's Jewish listeners in Acts 2, the eunuch Acts 8, the jailer Acts 16 while all in a lost state, yet they still wanted to know God's word and what to do to be saved. They were willing to do good even though they were lost.
Alright, well, you and I are going to see that differently. I am a very simple man, and thank God He keeps things very simple for people such as myself. I might suggest, that we can take all of the very simple statements made by God and take them at face value. No higher understanding or hidden message needs to be taken away from the very simple or most basic statements made by God. Therefore, if a "higher" understanding of something conflicts with a very simple statement...we need to check our "higher" understanding...in my opinion.

All have sinned and come short of the glory of God is a pretty straight forward simple statement. (no age restriction mentioned here)

All of my righteousness is as filthy rags is another.

If you can pardon my unlearned perspective, I might also suggest that some have the tendency to misuse the focus in the example of Cain and the others you mentioned. Cain's choice was one that we all have: walk with God (what we were intended to do, what God had set up for us to do originally, what God meant to be natural to us), or make his own choice and of his (cain's) own power walk apart from God. The focus is still on God...not Cain in this perspective. You see, it is all about Christ, not us. (This, I am sure we agree on) God can use anything or anyone to accomplish His purpose, whether a person is compliant or not to doing the will of God, whether the person wants to walk with God or not, nothing is impossible for Him.

SL
 

lukethreesix

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This whole arguement is solved with one verse, Matt 9:37. God HAS chosen a FEW. But these few who are "elected" by God are not chosen for salvation, but they are the FEW LABOURERS He sends to gather the great "plenteous HARVEST".
The "elect" themselves are not the harvest, the elect are the few who are chosen by God to bring in the many.
Remember it was Jesus who said, "I have chosen you, you did not choose me."
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Secondhand Lion said:
Alright, well, you and I are going to see that differently. I am a very simple man, and thank God He keeps things very simple for people such as myself. I might suggest, that we can take all of the very simple statements made by God and take them at face value. No higher understanding or hidden message needs to be taken away from the very simple or most basic statements made by God. Therefore, if a "higher" understanding of something conflicts with a very simple statement...we need to check our "higher" understanding...in my opinion.

All have sinned and come short of the glory of God is a pretty straight forward simple statement. (no age restriction mentioned here)

All of my righteousness is as filthy rags is another.

If you can pardon my unlearned perspective, I might also suggest that some have the tendency to misuse the focus in the example of Cain and the others you mentioned. Cain's choice was one that we all have: walk with God (what we were intended to do, what God had set up for us to do originally, what God meant to be natural to us), or make his own choice and of his (cain's) own power walk apart from God. The focus is still on God...not Cain in this perspective. You see, it is all about Christ, not us. (This, I am sure we agree on) God can use anything or anyone to accomplish His purpose, whether a person is compliant or not to doing the will of God, whether the person wants to walk with God or not, nothing is impossible for Him.

SL
Rom 3:9 "What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;"

"All" refers back to "they" and "they " refer to the two groups Jew and Gentiles. Paul in this context is not talking about individuals but talking about the two groups Jew and Gentiles. So "all" refers to the two groups Jew and Gentile and not to every single individual for Christ nor infants sin.

Going back to the context of Romans chapter 1-3 Paul is talking about the Gentiles who lived prior to the law of Moses, then Paul speaks of the Jews to whom the law of Moses was given and Paul concludes ALL [both these groups] are under sin. The reason Paul made this declaraton that these two groups were under sin was back at that time Christ had not yet shed His blood making perfect justication before God for those Gentiles and Jews impossible. Since neither group could not have their sins completely remitted by Christ's blood, Paul concludes both groups under sin. Paul later in Romans explains how all - Jew and Gentile - can have justification by faith in Christ, Rom 5:1ff.

So the context of Rom 3 has nothing to do with infants beng sinners, but Paul was proving to the Jewish group they were no better than the Gentile group for both groups, under OT times, were sinners being without Christ's shed blood.



----------------------------------------


The context of Isa 64:6 is speaking of those (Israel) who were in iniquity. Those who obey God's righteousness/commandments are accepted with God, Acts 10:35, God meets/entreats those that work HIS righteousness, Isa 64:5..."Thou meetest him that rejoiceth and worketh righteousness..."



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Gen 4:7 "If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him."


God Himslef shows that man has no total depravity at all. For God said Cain could choose to do 'well' and not only able to do 'not well' "If" is a conditonal word, it shows it was conditonal upon Cain choosing for himself which he would do, implying Cain had the ability to choose to do either well or not well.
God further tells Cain to rule over sin which would not be possible if there were such a thing as total depravity.


---------------------------------------


Both Christ and man have a role in man's salvation. Christ made a pathway to be saved available for man, it is up to man to choose to take that pathway to salvation. And man is not totally depraved that he is unable to choose to take that pathway.
Paul uses "all" in the same sesne Joel did when Joel proheices that Gd's spirit wouldbe poured out upon ALL flesh, Joel 2:28 ALl here does not mean every sinlge person would be baptized with the HS, but Joel is talking about the two groups JEw and Gentile. In Acts 2 the Aposltes (Jews) were bpatized with the HS and Acts 10 Cornelious (Gentile) was baptized with the HS so ALL, Jew and Gentile were bpatized with the HS.

lukethreesix said:
This whole arguement is solved with one verse, Matt 9:37. God HAS chosen a FEW. But these few who are "elected" by God are not chosen for salvation, but they are the FEW LABOURERS He sends to gather the great "plenteous HARVEST".
The "elect" themselves are not the harvest, the elect are the few who are chosen by God to bring in the many.
Remember it was Jesus who said, "I have chosen you, you did not choose me."
The "harvest" can be of the elect upon hearing and obeying the gospel of Christ but there are few taking the gospel to the "harvest". So ANY of the harvest that hears and obey's Christ's gospel can become part of the foreknown group > Christian.

When Jesus said "I have chosen you, you did not choose me" Jesus was seaking to HIs apostles, Jesus chose them for that apostolic office.
 

lukethreesix

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Ernest, I think its dangerous to say Jesus was only talking to a particular group so we can say it doesn't apply to us. I mean, was Jesus only talking to those standing in front of him and he said, "come to me all you who are heavy laden and I will give you rest." Can we say "we weren't there" so he was not talking to us? I believe the entire bible in every passage and parable is speaking to each andevery one of us (at least in one way or another)...
 

Secondhand Lion

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Ernest,

May we take Romans first? What individual was not in one of the two groups (a jew or a gentile)? Do you believe it is unreasonable to say Paul could have known the group is made up of the individuals? Is there a way to separate the group from the individual?

I guess I also should ask: does this mean we need saved as the whole group (your reasoning for Romans 5) or can we come as individuals?

SL
 

DPMartin

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What you've got to understand is, God chooses Faith, He chose faith in the garden, but Adam and Eve trusted the words of the serpent. Though Noah found Grace in the Lord God’s sight, it was faith that built the Ark. It was faith that was accounted righteousness unto Abraham because Abraham believed packed his stuff and went where the Lord told him to go. And Jesus when He walked amongst His People, He constantly looked for faith, and honored it everywhere He found it. Sinners or not.

Choice is based on what is trusted/believed, Faith. Hence God the Father chooses His Son for all mankind to trust and believe. If one chooses Christ because he believes, why does He believe? Because of theology or revelation?

Also, if one chooses Christ he agrees with the Almighty that that the Lord Jesus Christ is what is good for him. Hence it is God's will that all come, but how can you reject the Holy Spirit unless you know it is there?
 

Ernest T. Bass

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lukethreesix said:
Ernest, I think its dangerous to say Jesus was only talking to a particular group so we can say it doesn't apply to us. I mean, was Jesus only talking to those standing in front of him and he said, "come to me all you who are heavy laden and I will give you rest." Can we say "we weren't there" so he was not talking to us? I believe the entire bible in every passage and parable is speaking to each andevery one of us (at least in one way or another)...
Proper exegesis requires one to know who is speaking, who is being spoken to and what is being said. In that context Jesus was speaking to His apostles. God said "Make yourself an ark of gopherwood" but everyone is not building an ark.

Jesus does not decide for men which ones will be saved or lost for that puts blame/fault/culpability upon Him.

Secondhand Lion said:
Ernest,

May we take Romans first? What individual was not in one of the two groups (a jew or a gentile)? Do you believe it is unreasonable to say Paul could have known the group is made up of the individuals? Is there a way to separate the group from the individual?

I guess I also should ask: does this mean we need saved as the whole group (your reasoning for Romans 5) or can we come as individuals?

SL
Paul is not talking about how we are saved today in Romans chapters 1-3. Paul leads up to how we today are saved in Rom chapters 4, 5, 6. But in Rom chapters 1-3 Paul goes back to OT times explaining how those Gentiles and Jews under those OT laws could not be justified, then Paul leads up to how they can be justified under Christ's NT gospel.
 

Secondhand Lion

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Ernest,

I am not Ken Ham, I will not allow people to only answer the questions they want. :D Please do not skip questions 2, 3, and 4 in my post. Please answer them before we can move on. I will restate them.

2. What individual was not in one of the two groups? (a jew or a gentile)

3. Do you believe it is unreasonable to say Paul knew the group is made up of individuals?

4. Is there a way to separate the group from the individual?

I know these are simple questions, but please humor me.

Thank you

SL