who is the false prophet in revelation

[Ronald Nolette]

If "many antichrists", who are individuals, are grouped together in a room, how many will have "that spirit of antichrist"?
Ans. All of them. Each will have "that spirit of antichrist"

and how many angels fit on the head of a pin? Just as inane and irrelevant.
Look up the passage and parse it out in Greek! Then deal with it.

 

[Earburner]

More fodder on you part, because John 3:18 does NOT tell us about anyone born in this world that will perish in the future "lake of fire". So that's STRIKE 1.

Nor does Romans 8:9 reveal anyone born in this world is already judged and sentenced to perish in that future "lake of fire". STRIKE 2.

Those Scriptures ONLY reveal there will be... some... that perish, but it DOES NOT show anyone born in this world having ALREADY been judged and sentenced to perish. The ONLY ones God's Word tells... us that are ALREADY judged and sentenced to perish in the future "lake of fire" is the devil and his angels. No one else has yet.

And by that... we KNOW not any born in this world will be... Judged and Sentenced to perish in the future "lake of fire" until AFTER God's Great White Throne Judgment at the END of Christ's future "thousand years" reign of Rev.20.

And I am certain... you well know this, but you are just being obstinate against The Word of God. STRIKE 3, YOU'RE OUT.

It's not my fault if you are misunderstanding John 3:18 and 1 John 5:12-13. Jesus is now God's judgment unto eternal life, through faith in Him.
Every person who rejects and/or neglects Christ, and then physically dies, they are forever lost, having no eternal existence of any kind.
Because they never received God's Holy Spirit, while they were alive, it is impossible for them be resurrected.
Therefore, by not having the Spirit of Christ, they are literally "condemned/judged already".

 

[Earburner]

and how many angels fit on the head of a pin? Just as inane and irrelevant.
Look up the passage and parse it out in Greek! Then deal with it.

I have dealt with it. 2 Thes. 2:8 is to be understood in the plural. There is no one man band, miracle man coming to be "THE" Antichrist.
There are many unbelievers who are ruled by "that spirit of antichrist"

 

[Earburner]

The Two Judgments of God:
1.Through the disobedience of Adam, all shalt surely die. Gen. 2:17.

2. Through faith in the obedience of Christ, all shall never die. John 11:26.

What does the above say?
It says John 3:18, 1 John 5:12-13, Rom. 8-9, Luke 10:20, Heb. 12:23, Rev. 20:15.
Jesus Himself IS THE BOOK OF LIFE.
Just as He is also the Tree of Life.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

I have dealt with it. 2 Thes. 2:8 is to be understood in the plural. There is no one man band, miracle man coming to be "THE" Antichrist.
There are many unbelievers who are ruled by "that spirit of antichrist"

So though god inspired Paul to use the singular you decided to declare it is to be understood as to have been written in the plural? Sorry, but God doesn't need a human editor!

 

[Earburner]

So though god inspired Paul to use the singular you decided to declare it is to be understood as to have been written in the plural? Sorry, but God doesn't need a human editor!

"Lawless one" vs. "Lawless"

KJV 2 Thes. 2:8 reads as "that Wicked".
The Strongs- G459 interpretation is the word "lawless".

In the Textus Receptive Greek:
The word "that" [αυτός] is not used in the TR Greek, but the word "the" [O] is used.

1. Lawless - άνομος - TR Greek

2. One- [ένα] - TR Greek

3. In the TR Greek, the word "one" [ένα] is not found with the word "lawless" [άνομος].

However, the religions of "church-ianity" subtly add in the word "one", thinking that the word "one" will agree with the KJV error of the words: "that Wicked", meaning a singular man, or as they and you like to believe and say: "THE lawless [one]", aka "THE Antichrist".

Unfortunately the Greek word, for the word "that"- αυτός is not associated with the word "lawless" or the word "wicked". However the word "the"- "0" is associated with the word "lawless"- "ἄνομος", causing it to be read and understood in the plural, as it is found the context following verse 8.

KJV Bible:
2 Thes. 2:8
And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume

The correct Textus Receptus Greek to English:
2 Thes. 2:8
καὶ τότε ἀποκαλυφθήσεται
and then will be revealed

ὁ ἄνομος
the lawless

ὃν ὁ κύριος ἀναλώσει.....
whom the Lord will consume.....

 

[Ronald Nolette]

3. In the TR Greek, the word "one" [ένα] is not found with the word "lawless" [άνομος].

However, the religions of "church-ianity" subtly add in the word "one", thinking that the word "one" will agree with the KJV error of the words: "that Wicked", meaning a singular man, or as they and you like to believe and say: "THE lawless [one]", aka "THE Antichrist".

Unfortunately the Greek word, for the word "that"- αυτός is not associated with the word "lawless" or the word "wicked". However the word "the"- "0" is associated with the word "lawless"- "ἄνομος", causing it to be read and understood in the plural, as it is found the context following verse 8.

Well this just shows you have little to know knowledge of Greek vocabulary. For if you did beyond basic primers like concordances and lexicons you would know that when Greek is translated into English we must (to render proper translation) render words in English that are given by the construct of the sentence and noun, verb, etc.

Wicked is anamos and is the nominative, singular and MASCULINE! and that is just as accurate as the and is one of the english words used to translate the definite article in Greek.

This is further confirmed in verse 9: 9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,

Which is genetive singular masculine. "Even Him" is added in English because of "whose" and its construct to understand in English

The correct Textus Receptus Greek to English:
2 Thes. 2:8
καὶ τότε ἀποκαλυφθήσεται
and then will be revealed

No that is not the correct Greek to English, that is the transliterated Greek to English. when you fully consider the construct of the Greek, and then translate, English words are added that correspond to case, mood, number etc. this is the difference between transliteration and translation.

 

[Davy]

It's not my fault if you are misunderstanding John 3:18 and 1 John 5:12-13. Jesus is now God's judgment unto eternal life, through faith in Him.
Every person who rejects and/or neglects Christ, and then physically dies, they are forever lost, having no eternal existence of any kind.
Because they never received God's Holy Spirit, while they were alive, it is impossible for them be resurrected.
Therefore, by not having the Spirit of Christ, they are literally "condemned/judged already".

You haven't even BEGUN to understand my question, and instead you are being stubborn.

Those born in the flesh during THIS PRESENT WORLD that will perish because of unbelief are NOT JUDGED until God's Great White Throne Judgment that ONLY happens at the end of Christ's future "thousand years" reign, AS WRITTEN IN REVELATION 20.

That means NO ONE knows just who born in the flesh will perish!

This is also why Lord Jesus was very careful to NOT 'directly' condemn anyone born in the flesh to the "lake of fire". He only would say things like they were 'in danger' of perishing in the "lake of fire", but He did not say direct condemnations like, "you will perish in the lake of fire".

So you need to understand the difference these 2 thoughts:
1. 'some' will perish in the lake of fire.
2. only Satan and his angels have already been judged and sentenced to perish.

 

[Earburner]

You haven't even BEGUN to understand my question, and instead you are being stubborn.

Those born in the flesh during THIS PRESENT WORLD that will perish because of unbelief are NOT JUDGED until God's Great White Throne Judgment that ONLY happens at the end of Christ's future "thousand years" reign, AS WRITTEN IN REVELATION 20.

That means NO ONE knows just who born in the flesh will perish!

This is also why Lord Jesus was very careful to NOT 'directly' condemn anyone born in the flesh to the "lake of fire". He only would say things like they were 'in danger' of perishing in the "lake of fire", but He did not say direct comdemnations like, "you will perish in the lake of fire".

So you need to understand the difference these 2 thoughts:
1. 'some' will perish in the lake of fire.
2. only Satan and his angels have already been judged and sentenced to perish.

In John 3:18, all who have died, that did not believe in Jesus, while they were alive, are locked into God's first judgment of death, which was pronounced upon Adam and all the generations of man.
Because they did not believe in Jesus, God's second judgment of life, they cannot escape from the first judgment of death, and therefore are condemned/judged already.

All who are not found written in the book of life, who is Jesus Himself, will be cast into the lake of fire.

The White throne judgment is symbolic of what has been going on in each generation, ever since Jesus' first appearance.
To His disciples, as well as to all of us who believe, we may rejoice, because "our names are written in Heaven", which is to say the book of life, who is Jesus.
Edit:
If then our names ARE now written in Heaven, because we have converted to Christ before our death, then the names of those who have not converted to Christ before there death, are now NOT written in Heaven, and never will be.

 

[Earburner]

when you fully consider the construct of the Greek, and then translate, English words are added

Correct, I AM HERE to show that which has been added in the English translation of the TRGreek, for reasons of popular belief.
Such a fabrication, was to force a slanted structure of words to accommodate and communicate what most "reformers" believed, that the Pope was "The Antichrist". The SDAs and a few others are still running with that fabricated theory.

Therefore, to personalize the words: "that spirit of antichrist", as being only a singular man that is still to come, is a very easy thing to do, in forming the translation into English.
That goes hand in hand with many foolishly thinking and believing that the "false prophet" is a singular man also, being one and the same. The lie just keeps getting bigger.

 

[Davy]

In John 3:18, all who have died, that did not believe in Jesus, while they were alive, are locked into God's first judgment of death, which was pronounced upon Adam and all the generations of man.
Because they did not believe in Jesus, God's second judgment of life, they cannot escape from the first judgment of death, and therefore are condemned/judged already.

We do not know who all will perish at the future "second death". We only know those who remain in unbelief will perish AFTER THEY ARE JUDGED AT THE GREAT WHITE THRONE JUDGEMENT.

But for Satan and his angels, we ALREADY TODAY KNOW they are already judged and sentenced to perish in the "lake of fire".

So show me Scripture that SPECIFICALLY SAYS SOMEONE BORN FLESH HAS ALREADY BEEN JUDGED TODAY. You will NOT find any such Scripture, because the time of their Judgment is in the future per Revelation 20. Not even Judas Iscariot has been judged and sentenced to perish in the future "lake of fire" yet. You know this, so I don't know why your being silly about it.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Correct, I AM HERE to show that which has been added in the English translation of the TRGreek, for reasons of popular belief.
Such a fabrication, was to force a slanted structure of words to accommodate and communicate what most "reformers" believed, that the Pope was "The Antichrist". The SDAs and a few others are still running with that fabricated theory.

Therefore, to personalize the words: "that spirit of antichrist", as being only a singular man that is still to come, is a very easy thing to do, in forming the translation into English.
That goes hand in hand with many foolishly thinking and believing that the "false prophet" is a singular man also, being one and the same. The lie just keeps getting bigger.

Well then as you are making such an enormous accusation against many Believing Greek experts, we shall all await your factual evidence to show they are either woefully misinformed or intentionally deceiving the body of christ.

 

[Earburner]

Well then as you are making such an enormous accusation against many Believing Greek experts, we shall all await your factual evidence to show they are either woefully misinformed or intentionally deceiving the body of Christ.

In 2 Thes. 2:8, I have shown the English words that are added in, and/or changed, in the KJV Bible, that are literally not read in the Textus Receptus Greek.

1 Cor. 2:1-16
[5] That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but [rather] in the power of God.

There is no literal one man band called THE Antichrist to come.
However, according to the words of the TR Greek, "the lawless" (plural) are NOW being revealed.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

In 2 Thes. 2:8, I have shown the English words that are added in, and/or changed, in the KJV Bible, that are literally not read in the Textus Receptus Greek.

1 Cor. 2:1-16
[5] That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but [rather] in the power of God.

There is no literal one man band called THE Antichrist to come.
However, according to the words of the TR Greek, "the lawless" (plural) are NOW being revealed.

And I have shown you conclusively why, when you translate3 from Greek to English because of Greek construct, Englsih words have to be added to make sense in English.

And you are wrong about lawless. It is not plural but the Nominative Singular Masculine.

8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

Which is why many English translations correctly add "one" after wicked to clarify it is singular.

 

[Earburner]

And I have shown you conclusively why, when you translate3 from Greek to English because of Greek construct, Englsih words have to be added to make sense in English.

And you are wrong about lawless. It is not plural but the Nominative Singular Masculine.

8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

Which is why many English translations correctly add "one" after wicked to clarify it is singular.

But, as I have pointed out, the word "that", before the word "wicked", IS the word "THE" in the TR Greek.

Therefore, the plural is allowed with the word "the", whereas with the word "that", it is specifically in the singular, and is not allowed to become plural.

For example, if we are together in a room full of chairs, and you tell me to sit in "that" chair, by your direction, I will sit in the specific chair of your choice. However, if you tell me to sit in "the" chair, of the many in the room, I am free to choose and sit in any one of the chairs I like.

The many other English Bible versions have only compounded the problem, of which magnifies the error, causing false doctrines exponentially.

All of it boils down to the simple concept of "that spirit of antichrist" (legion), being of the demonic, which possesses numerous persons down through the centuries, and will continue to do so, upto the very Day of Christ's Glorious return.

Edit: here is a glimpse of "that spirit of antichrist" at work in the world, invading the very homes of our dwelling, via satan's mouth piece, electronic communications and digital TV.

Governor calling for more gender neutral bathrooms in public schools (Virginia)

Video: Glenn Youngkin Calls for Gender Neutral School Bathrooms at CNN Town Hall

Virginia Governor Glenn Youngkin called for more gender-neutral bathrooms to be added to public schools during a CNN town hall.

nationalfile.com

Basketball coach loses job for quoting the Bible to a player.

Texas Tech Basketball Coach Accused of Racism, Loses Job for Quoting Bible Verse

Mark Adams, the now-former basketball coach at Texas Tech, has lost his job and been accused of racism for quoting a Bible verse.

nationalfile.com

 

[Ronald Nolette]

But, as I have pointed out, the word "that", before the word "wicked", IS the word "THE" in the TR Greek.

Therefore, the plural is allowed with the word "the", whereas with the word "that", it is specifically in the singular, and is not allowed to become plural.

Your understanding of grammar is atrocious. Definite articles like "the" and "that" have no number to them

It is wicked that has a number and it is singular. So no the plural is not allowed! Whether the or that is used (both are the same in greek, ) makes no difference as to the number of the noun.

For example, if we are together in a room full of chairs, and you tell me to sit in "that" chair, by your direction, I will sit in the specific chair of your choice. However, if you tell me to sit in "the" chair, of the many in the room, I am free to choose and sit in any one of the chairs I like.

Once again you fail in grammar. both "the", and "that" are definite articles and speak to specifics. If it was to be an undefined char out of many, then it would have been constructed as an anarthrous noun. Really, you are failing terrible here.

All of it boils down to the simple concept of "that spirit of antichrist" (legion), being of the demonic, which possesses numerous persons down through the centuries, and will continue to do so, upto the very Day of Christ's Glorious return.

Edit: here is a glimpse of "that spirit of antichrist" at work in the world, invading the very homes of our dwelling, via satan's mouth piece, electronic communications and digital TV.

And you have fallen prey to the error of the TR. Spirit (pneuma) does not appear in the TR or any text and was added without just cause. But even if this was a justifiable addition, it has nothing to do with the fact in Thesselonians Paul is speaking of a single specific individual.

And the spirit is singular also, for it is one spirit that many have given in to. Though many have adopted that spirit of Antichdrist- it is one spirit as the TR shows.

 

[Earburner]

Your understanding of grammar is atrocious. Definite articles like "the" and "that" have no number to them

It is wicked that has a number and it is singular. So no the plural is not allowed! Whether the or that is used (both are the same in greek, ) makes no difference as to the number of the noun.

Once again you fail in grammar. both "the", and "that" are definite articles and speak to specifics. If it was to be an undefined char out of many, then it would have been constructed as an anarthrous noun. Really, you are failing terrible here.

And you have fallen prey to the error of the TR. Spirit (pneuma) does not appear in the TR or any text and was added without just cause. But even if this was a justifiable addition, it has nothing to do with the fact in Thesselonians Paul is speaking of a single specific individual.

And the spirit is singular also, for it is one spirit that many have given in to. Though many have adopted that spirit of Antichdrist- it is one spirit as the TR shows.

I don't care how terrible I am in the grammar (letter), as long as one comprehends the spiritual value of what is actually being conveyed.

Correct! It is "that spirit of antichrist" that is singular, but influences multitudes of the unsaved who are plural. I did show that in my explanation.
1 John 4:3
πᾶν - means every - plural.
πνεῦμα - means spirit, which is pneuma -singular.

4:3 καὶ [and] πᾶν [every] πνεῦμα [pneuma-spirit-singular].

All angels, holy or fallen are ministering spirits. Satan's angels minister against Christ, God's holy angels minister for Christ. Heb. 1:14 (spirits- πνεύματα- pneumata- plural), 2 Cor. 11:14.
Every single spirit, that is not of God, is of that spirit of antichrist, being many, aka legion.
Mat. 26:53, Mark 5:9, Rom. 8:9, 1 John 5:12-13

 

[Ronald Nolette]

I don't care how terrible I am in the grammar (letter), as long as one comprehends the spiritual value of what is actually being conveyed.

I GET IT! God doesn't know grammar well and He needs earburner to convey what He really meant! Horse manure!!!!! This spiritualizing clear simple passages of Scripture is a grievous stain on teh bodyu of Christ. But then I suppose you have the inside ability to see what God was really trying to say instead of what He was saying when he inspired the writers of Scripture!

But tell me, if I am not to accept literally what God inspired to write in these passages, why should I accept what you say as literal and not spiritualize it away as you do with god's Word?

 

[Earburner]

I GET IT! God doesn't know grammar well and He needs earburner to convey what He really meant! Horse manure!!!!! This spiritualizing clear simple passages of Scripture is a grievous stain on teh bodyu of Christ. But then I suppose you have the inside ability to see what God was really trying to say instead of what He was saying when he inspired the writers of Scripture!

But tell me, if I am not to accept literally what God inspired to write in these passages, why should I accept what you say as literal and not spiritualize it away as you do with god's Word?

Your response to me is like that of one who believes that the "Rich man and Lazarus" is a true story. Luke:16:19-31.

Oh, and I might add this:
1 Cor. 2:1-16
[12] Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God.
[13] Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth;
comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
[14] But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
[15] But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man.
[16] For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ.

1 Cor. 2[5] That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Your response to me is like that of one who believes that the "Rich man and Lazarus" is a true story. Luke:16:19-31.

Well it is a true story.

1. There is no parable that uses proper names.
2. there is no comparison of one thing to another like in all other parables.
3. It is not called a parable or story or fable.
4. No Comparative words like : "like," "likened unto," "can be compared to", "is as" etc are used.
5. Jesus starts the account with the words "There was a man".....
6. Sheol and Abrahams Bosdom are real places and not compared to anything.
7Prior to Jesus resurrection, the saved went to Abrahams Bosom and the lost still go to teh place of torments.
8. There is no other paraBLES SURROUNDING IT.

No Lararus is a real account.

And you have no authority to override when Gods writes a singular to make it plural!