Compare Matthew 24 with Luke 21 and you can clearly see that part is about the 70Ad destruction
Luke 21
The Destruction of Jerusalem
20 “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation is near. 21 Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, let those who are in the midst of her depart, and let not those who are in the country enter her. 22 For these are the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled. 23 But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! For there will be great distress in the land and wrath upon this people. 24 And they will fall by the edge of the sword, and be led away captive into all nations. And Jerusalem will be trampled by Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.
Matthew 24
15 “Therefore when you see the ‘abomination of desolation,’ spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place” (whoever reads, let him understand), 16 “then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. 17 Let him who is on the housetop not go down to take anything out of his house. 18 And let him who is in the field not go back to get his clothes. 19 But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! 20 And pray that your flight may not be in winter or on the Sabbath. 21 For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be. 22 And unless those days were shortened, no flesh would be saved; but for the [c]elect’s sake those days will be shortened.
Clearly, Luke 21:20 is pertaining to what eventually happened in 70 AD. But that doesn't mean so is Matthew 24:15-21. Like I already pointed out, Revelation 7.9 is involving great tribulation that can't be matched nor surpassed in greatness. And that Jesus said in Matthew 24:21, pertaining to great tribulation, that it too can't be matched nor surpassed in greatness.
What should this be telling any reasonable thinking person? That great tribulation pertaining to Matthew 24:21 is meaning the same great tribulation pertaining to Revelation 7:9? Or that Matthew 24:21 is not meaning the same great tribulation pertaining to Revelation 7:9? Which then means if the latter is true, alleged tribulation involving Jews in the first century was greater than great tribulation involving Revelation 7:9, keeping in mind that we can't ignore what Jesus said in Matthew 24:21--no, nor ever shall be. Obviously, meaning that no tribulation in the past or future can match nor surpass this tribulation in greatness. As if it makes sense, assuming Matthew 24:21 is involving unbelieving Jews in the first century, that those events surpass Revelation 7:9 in number and in greatness.
Keeping in mind that this age isn't over yet, meaning that the worst is yet to come, great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time. But let's just apply that to the first century and not even give it a chance to be fulfilled in the future.
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