OzSpen
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- Mar 30, 2015
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Stranger,Stranger said:In asking that you are acknowledging that the Jews in Israel rejected the Apocrypha. Correct?
Stranger
That's a strange response because it is not what I asked or suggested.
My question was simple: Since when was a condition of being in the canon of the NT dependent on being received by Jews in Israel? There are no twists and turns in this question. I would like to know where it is recorded that Jews of Israel had to receive a book before it was accepted into the NT canon.
My question had nothing to do with the Apocrypha. Don't you understand that the Apocryphal books were originally attached to the Greek OT and I'm asking about the NT canon?
Oz