I agree. But we run into an issue with this scripture.
Do you ask for healing in Jesus' name?
John 14:13-14 NIV
And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
14 You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.
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Might we not conclude that being "in His name" requires something more than simply saying the word, Jesus, when we ask for anything?
Consider thee following verse:
"Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved." Acts 4:12
So what is that name? Jesus, right? Is it?
I see a significant difference between being "in His name" and simply saying the name, the word, Jesus, with our mouths:
When a person is “in His name” completely isn’t it that he has the mind of Christ? Do all of us have the mind of Christ all of the time? If we did, we certainly wouldn’t sin at all, would we?
I believe that a person can be
in His name without saying the name or even without knowing the name in his carnal mind. Is it possible that some people in the OT were
in His name before any prophet knew the name of the Messiah (Jesus) in order to speak it with his lips?
Couldn't Elijah have been
in His name, much, if not all, of the time, when he was confronting the 400 prophets of Baal?
Couldn't David 'a man after God's own heart' and the 'apple of God's eye', also have been
in His name when God inspired him to write many of the psalms in today’s Bible?
Could not both Elijah and David and others have been
in His name long before the time of John the Baptist?
Consider then the man in a barroom today using the name of Jesus to rebuke another person. Because he speaks the word, Jesus, would that put him "in His name? I think not.