You did…but you still exhibit no understanding of what was said in any of the verses you quoted..
Can we examine those verses in the light of how they were understood by the people to whom they were written?…not by those who came later and changed the meaning of everything that Jesus taught. In their translation, done according to their own erroneous adoptions and interpretation, false beliefs of an apostate church system, became a Christianity that Christ never taught…..just as Jesus and his apostles foretold.…..Do you pretend it never happened?
The “weeds” of Jesus parable were not sown recently. The foretold “apostasy” was beginning even before the apostles died. (2 Thess 2:3-7) Anything written after the first century is not included in the NT canon for a very good reason…it does not belong in Scripture.
The whole of God’s word was written by Jews…..there is not a Catholic author among them.
John 13:13
“You call Me Teacher (didaskalos) and Lord; (kyrios) and you are right, for I am.“ (NASB)
Yes….”GOD made Jesus Lord and Christ”…”Kyrios“ is the English equivalent of “Sir” or “Master”, a title of respect not necessarily of deity. Sarah called Abraham “Lord” (kyrios)…she didn’t think he was God.
And Christ means “anointed one”. Jesus only became “the Christ” when he was baptized in water followed by his anointing with the Holy Spirit.
Original word meanings get lost in the error of translation.
Read it again….who
made Jesus Lord (Master) and Christ (anointed one) ? His God did.
How can you make someone what he already was? Or
give authority to one who already has it? (Matt 28:18)
Yes, two entirely separate beings.…one is Superior to the other. Look and see that the first “LORD” is in capitals but the second is not. What does that tell you? It tells you that the first “LORD” is Yahweh….the second one is his Messiah, David’s “Lord” who was to come. Not the same “Lord”.
Jesus said “the Father is greater than I am.” Making him “Lord“ to his disciples, did not make him God.
Yes, Jesus has a God and Father…..God does not. Jesus has brothers…..God has sons.
Does God only have one son? The angels are called “sons of God”….but Jesus is his “firstborn” and “only begotten” (monogenes), (Col 1:15) meaning that he is the first and only direct creation of his God and Father. (Rev 3:14) All creation thereafter came via the agency of this firstborn son (Col 1:16-17)…….so the pre-human Jesus had heavenly “brothers”…..but who are Christ’s “brothers” on earth? (Matt 25:31-46)
Yes, and I can’t believe that you can read those words and not see that two entirely separate beings are spoken about. “Jesus is the Christ; the son of the living God.”
Jesus is “the son of God” as he plainly stated himself. Calling the son “theos” in no way makes him deity, as Jesus plainly demonstrated to the Jews who accused him of blasphemy…..he said that his Father called human judges in Israel “gods” (theos) because they had his divine authority. (John 10:31-36)
LOL…read it again….”therefore God
thy God hath anointed thee”…..the anointed one has a God.
Jesus called his Father “my God“ four time in just one verse, long after his return to heaven. (Rev 3:12)
Can God have a God, even in heaven? Can God be his own High Priest? (Hebrews 3:1) Can God be his own “servant”? (Acts 3:13)
Yes, there it is in black and white…Jesus is “the Son of the living God”.…”sent” by his Father.
His Father is “head” over him, affirming his superiority as “the Most High over all creation”. (Psalm 83:18)
Elizabeth’s address to Mary as “the mother of my Lord” echoes the words of David in Psalm 110…they speak of the same “Lord” who in prophesy was fulfilled in Jesus Christ. But in Scripture, the LORD Yahweh is not the Lord Jesus.
| 1 Of David a psalm. The word of the Lord to my master; "Wait for My right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool at your feet." | | אלְדָוִ֗ד מִ֫זְמ֥וֹר נְאֻ֚ם יְהֹוָ֨ה | לַֽאדֹנִ֗י שֵׁ֥ב לִֽימִינִ֑י עַד־אָשִׁ֥ית אֹֽ֜יְבֶ֗יךָ הֲדֹ֣ם לְרַגְלֶֽיךָ: |
(Psalm 110:1 Jewish Tanakh)
If you refer to the Hebrew you will see the divine name “יְהֹוָ֨ה” is translated “Lord” and that Yahweh is addressing David’s “master”.
יְהֹוָ֨ה (Yahweh) was going to make the enemies of David’s “master”, a stool for his feet.
Without this information what does the Scripture suggest as it is translated in most Bibles?
“The Lord said to my Lord” is meaningless. What “Lord” said what to whom?
Do you never wonder why genderless spirit beings present themselves as Father and Son? It’s a relationship we humans understand because of the way we were created….that is until Christendom’s “god” is mentioned….then it all goes haywire…..the relationship is completely lost.
This is why I reject any notion of Jesus being anything but a “holy servant” of his God and Father, a beloved firstborn son, who willingly laid down his human life to redeem the now defective human race.….inheritors of a terminal affliction called sin, which Christ’s death paid for as their only release from its grip.
Can you tell me how redemption works and how the nation of Israel understood redemption?
