Were Jesus's brothers born of another woman?

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GodsGrace

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I wish it did fit into my propositions in a way that avoided the logical dilemma! Your image is exactly the problem, in pictorial terms, of the illogic I have been highlighting.
We're just talking here RF.....there's no way I could keep up this very scholarly discussion!

Re the image....I don't know of any way, besides a one or two sentence explanation, to properly portray the Trintiy.
Like I said...any example is heresy...but I do (or I should say DID) use examples when teaching our faith to kids.
For instance,,,,the one about a man being a father, an uncle, a husband is a heresy.
The one about water being 3 different elements is a heresy.

I'm thinking that maybe we're over-thinking this....maybe we're trying to understand it too much?

Orthodox Trinitariaism is threatened on one side by accusations of tritheism (Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three Gods), and on the other by accusations of modalism (Father, Son and Holy Spirit are mere modes of the same single entity) – and while always striving to bend to neither, a bend away from one is often a bend toward the other.
Exactly! My point re the examples.
HOW to have a proper example of something that DOES NOT HAPPEN if our time/space? (or whatever it is since now even time/space is being questioned).

Thus, emphasizing the distinctiveness of Father, Son and Holy Spirit in fending off modalist challenges seems to be a nod toward tritheism; and vice versa. Here's my tentative solution:

Any defense of a tripersonal God (I prefer “triune” God, but we can use the adjectives interchangeably for now) requires two context-dependent definitions of “God” – one defining “God” as the Trinity itself, another defining “God” as a single divine person of that Trinity.
Good. I like the definiton of God being the Trinity itself.
I also like the term GODHEAD,,,,and Triune God is also good.

Understood as a single divine Person of that Trinity would then break up the Godhead if we add the 2nd Person and the Holy Spirit.
Even the way I understand the Trinity is not really correct since I'm splitting up God (modalism?)....but it's the best I can do.


Isolating the “stuff” of “Godness” may be impossible to express in human terms, but we don’t need to do so; we only need to hold that whatever that ousia may be, it subsists in each of the three “Persons” within the Trinity. It may help to use a musical analogy here, one I am indebted to Jeremy Begbie for.
Ousia meaning essence?
OK.

Yes. The 3 are of ONE SUBSTANCE...I think that would be the same as essence....

Think of a chord composed of three different notes, say the chord C major composed of the notes C, E and G. Each note is a sound, and when played together the C chord is likewise a sound. In each case the sound is recognizable as what we call “music.” By analogy of “deity” to “music,” each of the three persons, like each note of the chord, is deity (music), and together they form deity (music) through three distinct sounds (persons). But the real harmony is in the Trinity (chord). Played simultaneously, the individual notes comprising the chord are subsumed in a single identifiable sound; our ear does not immediately pick the chord apart (although we can do so intellectually, and on the sheet music). It’s just music to the ear. It’s just God.
Smile....
But you're splitting up God, like I do !

It's more like all 3 are the chord....
I think you said it best when you said it's really difficult to express this in human terms.
But "person" as an analogue of "note" here is only an approximation. It is common these days for Trinitarians to latch onto “person” as the right translation of hypostasis. Some of that is fueled by the KJV’s English translation of the word in Hebrews 1:3 as “person.” Lucian Turcescu’s Gregory of Nyssa and the Concept of Divine Persons (Oxford University Press, 2005) “proposes to explain the difference between ousia and hypostasis, two Greek words the Cappadocians used to refer to ‘substance’ and ‘person’ respectively” (p. 48). I am reluctant to translate hypostasis as “person” rather than “individuated substance.”
I don't use the KJV and I don't think it matters too much how any one particular word is translated because we then have so much theology we could learn that explains each word and/or idea in the NT.

I can't remember if it's this thread that a member brought up the idea that Jesus is not a Person....and, indeed, He is not.
Jesus was both a man with a human nature and God with a divine nature...but He was not a Person in its true meaning. Which I will never understand BTW,,,but which YOU probably can.

IF we say that Jesus was a Person....then the Trinity becomes a total of 4 Persons instead of 3.
(not that I understand this very well - a little knowledge is a dangerous thing).

Gregory of Nyssa’s Letter to Peter works out the distinction between ousia and hypostasis as relating to the different names and properties attributed to God.

“As a theological term the word hypostasis was originally used as a possible equivalent to ousia (‘being,’ or ‘existence’), as being the substratum or underlying existence of things. Cp. Heb. i. 3 (‘the express image of His being’ (hypostaseos). It was still used in this sense in the earlier years of the fourth century. But later the two terms were distinguished, and currency was given to this distinction by the formula of the Cappadocian Fathers to denote the Trinity ‘One Being’ (ousia) ‘in three persons’ (hupostaseis). The later Western term ‘person’ has different associations from hypostasis, which denotes ‘a particular centre of being.’” J.H. Srawley, The Catechetical Oration of St. Gregory of Nyssa (1903) p. 26 n. 1.
There we go....
They both sound so the same to me....but apparently they aren't or a different word would not be needed.


Ousia:

The ousia of God is God as God is. The essence, being, nature and substance of God as taught in Eastern Christianity is uncreated, and cannot be comprehended in words. According to Lossky, God's ousia is "that which finds no existence or subsistence in another or any other thing".

Hypostasis:

PHILOSOPHY
an underlying reality or substance, as opposed to attributes or to that which lacks substance.

Hypostasis (plural: hypostases), from the Greek ὑπόστασις (hypóstasis), is the underlying, fundamental state or substance that supports all of reality. It is not the same as the concept of a substance[citation needed]. In Neoplatonism, the hypostasis of the soul, the intellect (nous) and "the one" was addressed by Plotinus.[1] In Christian theology, the Holy Trinity consists of three hypostases: that of the Father, that of the Son, and that of the Holy Spirit.[2]

source: Wikipedia




I have stopped referring to the Trinity as three PERSONS in one God -- because it will trip us up needlessly. “Person” is just the wrong translation of hypostasis. With all due respect to the KJV’s translation of that word in Hebrews 1:3 as “person,” you need to consider what happens when you juxtapose -- as the Nicenes did 1700 years ago -- hypostasis with ousia. They are not the same. Students of Greek and Latin who look at hypo and stasis as mirror images of sub and stantia are falling into a trap. I don’t want to downplay the importance of Hebrews 1:3 for Greek trinitarian theology, but we should be cautious in presuming that the author of Hebrews used the word in the exact same sense as the Cappadocian Fathers did three centuries later.
They are not the same....indeed.
I copied the above paragraph and plan to discuss with someone that should be able to explain it well to me.
If I can remember,,,,I'll report back. I don't expect you to spend a lot of time doing this. Explaining, I mean.

But thanks for such a good convo!
 

GodsGrace

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Oy vey. Are you aware of the difference in literature between what a character says and the narrative? Thomas said this, yes, about himself. This is not the same as the narrative, that it is the case.

I hold his statement is merely an exclamation. When I drop my toast, I am not literally declaring it is feces.
You think Thomas stating MY LORD AND MY GOD
My LORD
or
My Lord
AND
MY GOD


Is the same as you dropping your toast and making an exclamatory remark?

That is your prerogative....I'm not here to change your mind.
 

Wrangler

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Is the same as you dropping your toast and making an exclamatory remark?
Yes, that’s what I said. IF that was a declarative fact, rather than merely an exclamatory statement given the emotion of the moment, the narration would have affirmed it.

All 4 Gospels say the same thing; Jesus is the son of God. See Mark 1:1.
 

Matthias

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We're not discussing whether or not the Trinity is valid....
we're discussing whether or not Mary is the Theotokos and, naturally, the Trinity does come up.

It doesn’t come up in the Bible. Primitive Christianity is grounded in Jewish doctrine and dogma. It naturally comes up in Nicene Christianity.
 
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GodsGrace

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It doesn’t come up in the Bible. Primitive Christianity is grounded in Jewish doctrine and dogma. It naturally comes up in Nicene Christianity.
Primitive Christianity is grounded in Jewish doctrine and dogma.
OK
But did Christianity ever supersede primitive christianity?
Or did it remain the same?
Do we pay attention to what Ignatius of Antioch stated
or
Do we just ignore all the ECFs?

The mormons took one verse out of the NT and believe they could be baptized for someone that is dead.
Is this correct theology?

Does the NT REQUIRE ANY explanation at all?

I think it does.

1 Corinthians 15:29
28When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.
29Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?
 

Matthias

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Primitive Christianity is grounded in Jewish doctrine and dogma.
OK
But did Christianity ever supersede primitive christianity?
Or did it remain the same?

Nicene Christianity superseded primitive Christianity.

Do we pay attention to what Ignatius of Antioch stated
or
Do we just ignore all the ECFs?

I read them and recommend the practice to all and sundry. That is the means of documenting the evolution of doctrine and practice in Christianity.

The mormons took one verse out of the NT and believe they could be baptized for someone that is dead.
Is this correct theology?

What do you think?

Does the NT REQUIRE ANY explanation at all?

I think it does.

1 Corinthians 15:29
28When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.
29Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?

The Bible is sufficient in primitive Christianity.
 

GodsGrace

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I was thinking T2 was resurrection, but I you may have a point. I should make time T2 = death, and add a point in time T3= resurrection. That brings up the question of what P2's F and E was between T2 and T3.

The Philippians reference is interesting because it does state explicitly that P2 changed F, but as I mentioned to @RedFan, "emptying" also implies that E can change, and that E follows F. Then that brings up the question of what is P2's E after t=T3? If P2 had form F2 but not Essence E2, that validates the Docetic heresy. It also has ramifications in Atonement theory which postulates that P2 was the representative of all Ps who have Essence E2 per 1 John.

Philippians also states that P1 has an F, which itself violates the principle behind commandment C2. (Having multiple Ps with Essence E1 may be a violation of C1 anyway.)

There's an active thread on Theosis. I don't know much about Mormon beliefs; I've never discussed religion with my Morman aunt and uncle. You know how these religious discussions always break down into an argument. I've heard Theosis is actually part of Eastern Orthodox theology. I may want to investigate Theosis.

There's also the question of whether P2 possessed E1 from T1, or whether P2 picked up E1 when P3 landed on P2 like a dove at time T1.5. But that's another heresy.

E2 is either "Human", or an error on the Catcher, for those familiar with baseball scoring nomenclature. To err is Human...

(All of which in only peripherally related to the question of whether Mary and Joseph engaged in love-making like a normal happily married couple after Jesus was born. And that is the question-behind-the-question of the OP.)
Must leave till later.....but:
Theosis means that we can become sanctified in this life.
Kenosis means that we can become divine....this is what Mormons believe.

I'm sure you'll delve deeper....
I don't believe the first and certainly not the second.
 

GodsGrace

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Nicene Christianity superseded primitive Christianity.



I read them and recommend the practice to all and sundry. That is the means of documenting the evolution of doctrine and practice in Christianity.



What do you think?
No! We can't be baptized for someone that is dead.
Surely Paul meant something different.

must leave.
The Bible is sufficient in primitive Christianity.
Maybe you could explain primitive christianity?
 

Lambano

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You think Thomas stating MY LORD AND MY GOD
...

Is the same as you dropping your toast and making an exclamatory remark?
Thomas said that too, but John didn't know the proper Greek vocative form for "ἅγιος σκύβαλον!" when translating from the original Aramaic, so he left it out of the final draft.
 
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Lambano

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Must leave till later.....but:
Theosis means that we can become sanctified in this life.
Kenosis means that we can become divine....this is what Mormons believe.

I'm sure you'll delve deeper....
I don't believe the first and certainly not the second.
Thank you. Some of the literature uses "theosis" the same way you understand "kenosis".
 

Matthias

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No! We can't be baptized for someone that is dead.
Surely Paul meant something different.

must leave.

Maybe you could explain primitive christianity?

We can start with this: Primitive Christianity is the Christianity of the 1st century -> Jewish monotheism.

Nicene Christianity isn’t primitive Christianity. Nicene Christianity is a later development.
 
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Dan Clarkston

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For starters, most of the gospel accounts are based on prior oral tradition.

OK, so maybe you don't get it.... Jesus personally managed and supervised what He wanted to be put in to His canon...

One has to consider Jesus to be a FAILURE if He did not put in to His Word all that mankind needs to know.

You still have not provided an example of a teaching that is not in God's Word that actually came from the Lord.

Those following extra biblical teaching are actually getting deception from the devil because extra biblical teaching is NOT the Word of God as it did not come from Jesus Christ thru the Holy Ghost.



Sorry, but the union of two natures --though true -- doesn't make Mary the mother of GOD. The Son of God existed long before the Son of Mary existed.

Er... there's not two Sons of God ya know.
 

Verily

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I think you need to do a little research into the title “Lord” to see that it is not another name for God.

In Genesis the title “LORD” is followed by the divine name “Yᵊhōvâ”...(Jehovah)

e.g……Gen 2:4...”This is the account of the heavens and the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD H3068 God made earth and heaven.”

So if the divine name had still been in use, it would have read….”the Lord Jehovah made earth and heaven”.

But the title “Lord” when applied to Jesus is a title of respect, not deity. It essentially means “Sir” or “Master”.
Sarah called Abraham “Lord”…(1 Peter 3:6)….did she think he was God?

What verse exactly is the problem that you are picking up that I need more study on the word's Lord

Jesus said,

John 13:13 Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.

God made Jesus Lord and Christ

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

And we see

Acts 2:34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,

Which is God the Father and Jesus, the Son of the living God who made him Lord

Before Jesus ascended he said,

John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

That same evening, later he appears to them (Thomas not being with them)

He can now breath on them, and saith unto them, "Receive ye the Holy Ghost"

Eight days later Thomas with them (now able to touch him)

John 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

A couple verses later it says

John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

One God, even the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ

Will never change anything as far as Psalm 45:6 which Hebrews 1:8 quotes showing the Son of God is addressed by God the Father as God

Psalm 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre.

Psalm 45:7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

The head of Christ is God. 1 Cr 11:3

God who sent the Son, made of a woman made uner the law who is addressed as mother
of my Lord and addressed as such as by David as Jesus confirms.

The testimony given us by the Father is that Jesus is the Son of the living God.
 
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Verily

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Yes, that’s what I said. IF that was a declarative fact, rather than merely an exclamatory statement given the emotion of the moment, the narration would have affirmed it.

All 4 Gospels say the same thing; Jesus is the son of God. See Mark 1:1.
Jesus did say, " Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me?"

That Jesus was not alone and saying "My Lord and my God" when seeing him would be understandable, as it says,

2 Cr 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

God being with Christ

Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.

You can speak against the Son and be forgiven, he is given as a sign to be spoken against, but speaking against the Spirit he did his works by was blaspheme of the Holy Ghost and not forgiveable according to Jesus.
 
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Aunty Jane

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Give people a little credit.
I don’t really want to give people “credit“ for misunderstanding what the Bible says, because translators have done a lousy job at interpreting the Bible for them….I want to give them the truth….the whole truth and nothing but the truth. There are not versions of it…there is only one truth, and you have to evaluate each teaching to see if it comes from Scripture or a twisted interpretation of it that is out of place with the rest of what Scripture teaches. God inspired the original Scriptures, but translation is the work of men.

If you have been taught by the church system that exists today…how on earth can the truth be discerned in amongst all those “opinions”. Jesus told us this would be the case….that the devil would sow an imitation “Christianity” and by deception, gain the majority who claim to be “Christians”.…yet, wearing a label does not make you one…..Jesus also said that no one can come to the Father except through him….and no one can come to him without an invitation from his Father. (John 6:44, 65) The only way out of that confusing maze is by God’s intervention alone. It begins with a person evaluating what is being taught, and then seeing if the people who accept that faith, actually live it.…..see if they are obedient to all of the commands that Christ gave his disciples to the best of their ability….not just the convenient things, but even in the difficult things, not making excuses for ignoring them.

True Christians will be “no part of the world” and hated because they are different. (John 15:18-21)

Its not what you say…it’s what you do, and why you do it, that counts with God.
Remember that Thomas said. MY LORD AND MY GOD.

The MY GOD clarifies that Jesus was both his Lord and his God.
If you do a little study in the original language words used there (any good concordance will show you) then you would know that the word Thomas used is “theos”, for which Strongs Concordance gives its primary definition as….
  1. a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities
  2. spoken of the only and true God
    1. refers to the things of God
    2. his counsels, interests, things due to him
  3. whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
    1. God's representative or viceregent
      1. of magistrates and judges”
You can see there that this word has a wide range of meanings….but in Christendom, you would never know that.

Couple that with what the apostles said collectively…..
”For even though there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God, the Father, from whom all things are and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are and we through him.”

Did Thomas then contradict all the other apostles? Or are we reading more into the translation than what he actually said?

And LORD could refer to both GOD and what you described above.
In Bible times, the words used are often mistranslated or misconstrued when translated into English.
“Lord” was a title of respect…..one that slaves would give to their masters….a title Sarah gave to Abraham…it has a whole different connotation when translated by trinitarians however. “Lord“ as a title, was not exclusive to either God or his son, though both rightly deserve the title out of respect.

As “The Word” (God’s spokesman who was “in the beginning with God”) we see the pre-human Jesus used extensively in communication with God’s early servants.…such as Abraham and Moses. His preeminent position as the “firstborn” “Son of God” through whom God created all things, is a basis for describing him as “a god; a godlike one; divine; a divine being.” This is the meaning of “theos”….even the devil is called “theos” (2 Cor 4:4) though in a negative sense.

Correcting misunderstood Scripture is a duty if one is acting as Christ commanded, as we see those in his day who were misled by his own hypocritical religious leaders, and who were so ingrained with their false teachings that they stuck with their erring leaders, and had Christ put to death as a blaspheming fraud.

The devil has no new tricks…..he can make the truth appear to be lies, and his lies appear as truth.
Its up to us to examine what we believe and to see if it originates with the word of God or is a clever deception pretending to be truth.

No “Christian” church in the world today has more doctrines from outside sources than the CC, no matter which branch of that church you belong to. And since the Reformation, many Protestant churches have taken the three false foundational teachings of the CC and made room for them as their own foundation……it’s a faulty one, but people have to come to that conclusion themselves. Bible study is the only way.

Jesus took his message out to the people, but he never forced it on anyone. It had to be their choice to accept it or reject it.….”like the days of Noah” the majority will reject it. (Matt 24:37-39; Matt 7:13-14)
 

Aunty Jane

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Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.

You can speak against the Son and be forgiven, he is given as a sign to be spoken against, but speaking against the Spirit he did his works by was blaspheme of the Holy Ghost and not forgiveable according to Jesus.
Again we are dealing with really bad translation…..there is no such thing as a “ghost” in the Bible…..this is a German word, (geist) not an English one, but it carries a false belief that there are ghosts in the spirit realm…..there are no ghosts in heaven. God is not a ghost. His spirit is not a person. It is his dynamic power which he can impart to his servants as needed.

One has to know the difference between a ghost and a spirit. The spirit realm is inhabited by spirits, not ghosts. Angels are spirits and heaven had both good and bad. Satan began a rebellion among his brother angels that spread and caused a defection in that realm as well as in the earthly realm.

This idea springs from belief in an immortal soul, something else that the Bible does not teach…..there are no immortal souls in heaven…..there is no such thing as an “immortal soul”…..please show us those words side by side in any passage of Scripture.

The false Christianity sown by the devil is full of false ideas, promoted as Christian teachings. There is a reason why “few” will be found on the cramped and difficult road to life. (Matt 7:13-14)
 

Verily

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Again we are dealing with really bad translation…..there is no such thing as a “ghost” in the Bible…..this is a German word, (geist) not an English one, but it carries a false belief that there are ghosts in the spirit realm…..there are no ghosts in heaven. God is not a ghost. His spirit is not a person. It is his dynamic power which he can impart to his servants as needed.

One has to know the difference between a ghost and a spirit. The spirit realm is inhabited by spirits, not ghosts. Angels are spirits and heaven had both good and bad. Satan began a rebellion among his brother angels that spread and caused a defection in that realm as well as in the earthly realm.

This idea springs from belief in an immortal soul, something else that the Bible does not teach…..there are no immortal souls in heaven…..there is no such thing as an “immortal soul”…..please show us those words side by side in any passage of Scripture.

The false Christianity sown by the devil is full of false ideas, promoted as Christian teachings. There is a reason why “few” will be found on the cramped and difficult road to life. (Matt 7:13-14)
Try not to deflect from the question by stumbling over the word ghost.
 

Verily

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What verse exactly is the problem that you are picking up that I need more study on the word's Lord

Jesus said,

John 13:13 Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am.

God made Jesus Lord and Christ

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

And we see

Acts 2:34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,

Which is God the Father and Jesus, the Son of the living God who made him Lord

Before Jesus ascended he said,

John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

That same evening, later he appears to them (Thomas not being with them)

He can now breath on them, and saith unto them, "Receive ye the HOLY SPIRIT"

Eight days later Thomas with them (now able to touch him)

John 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

A couple verses later it says

John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

One God, even the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ

Will never change anything as far as Psalm 45:6 which Hebrews 1:8 quotes showing the Son of God is addressed by God the Father as God

Psalm 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre.

Psalm 45:7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

The head of Christ is God. 1 Cr 11:3

God who sent the Son, made of a woman made uner the law who is addressed as mother
of my Lord and addressed as such as by David as Jesus confirms.

The testimony given us by the Father is that Jesus is the Son of the living God.
I changed the word ghost to Spirit for you Aunty Jane so maybe that will help you out some