I understand, but the problem with that and wordsmithing all of scripture, is it assumes that men have providence over God's word rather than God. In this case it assumes that the Greeks accurately have a word for a God that they have just learned of.
Even so, even if we allow them the benefit of the doubt, the rest of scripture shows Jesus as One with the Father. And yes, even One can be wordsmithed to mean two...but it is not advisable.
Actually Scott, no Greek penned the Bible, and they knew God well. The Bible interprets itself sir, and it never contradicts, so determining meaning many times is going to be understood through multiple passages. For instance you stated Jesus was one with the Father, two beings clearly mentioned, yet one, so that could mean they are the same being, or it could mean something else, correct? By looking at other passages we can actually discern the meaning. First mention of two being one is found at Gen 2:24, that is easily understood, husband and wife, still separate, yet a family unit now.
The passage you referred to is found at Jn 10:30 which states very simply I and the Father are one. yet he pointed out just a few verses later they were one in unity v38. This was the account where he was about to be stoned for "making himself God/god", in which he openly stated that he said he was God's son. v36. A bit later in chapter 17, he makes it even clearer by saying
So the oneness of the Father and Jesus is an easily understood doctrinal teaching of the Bible Scott.