They will reign with Him a thousand years and making an unknown Greek out of the English New Testament

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rwb

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If you mean to say that mankind is spiritually dead from birth, then you are wrong. God forms the spirit in each of us. He doesn't give us a spirit dead at birth. He gives us a spirit alive and well at birth, Just like Adam and Eve, the spirit of a man dies when he sins. When we are reborn, the spirit comes alive again. That is why it is called REbirth or REgeneration or born AGAIN.

You're correct, God doesn't give man a spirit that is spiritually dead. Being born DEAD in trespasses and sins comes from the gene pool that comes from the first Adam. It is for that reason that man must be born again through the last Adam who is a life-giving Spirit. The first Adam has given us natural, physical life, after the natural life comes that which is spiritual, which is supernatural, eternal spiritual life through new birth by the Spirit of Christ. When we are born again, we are no longer naturally spiritually dead in trespasses and sins, because we have passed from spiritual death to spiritual life as has the second man, the Lord from heaven. Just as in physical life we are the image of the earthy, natural Adam, so too when our natural body dies we will be the image of the heavenly that is celestial, as are the angels of God in heaven.

1 Corinthians 15:45-49 (KJV) And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit. Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual. The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven. As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
 

JBO

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Separating the one group in the passage into two different groups as you have done above is just eisegesis masquerading as exegesis IMO. Sounds really desperate to me. There is no legitimate reason for doing so.​
Greek grammar demands it. The Greek word for "those who..." does not modify "souls". It is not a part of a prepositional phrase. It is the subject of the second phrase.
 

JBO

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You're correct, God doesn't give man a spirit that is spiritually dead. Being born DEAD in trespasses and sins comes from the gene pool that comes from the first Adam.
No, it has nothing to do with and gene pool from Adam. Being dean in trespasses and sins comes from the persons own trespasses and sins. Or perhaps I just didn't understand what you were trying to say.
 

rwb

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There is only a bodily resurrection every time the spirit is just the breath of life, but people get confused and try to make it more.

Yes, the spirit is the breath of life that is within every living breathing creature upon the earth. When we are in Christ the breath of life within (spirit) that identifies who man is, does not die when our physical body dies. It returns to God who gave it (Ecc 12:7). If before we died our breath of life (spirit) was born again through the Spirit from Christ, then our body returns to dust and our breath of life (spirit) returns to God alive forever and shall never die.
 

rwb

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No, it has nothing to do with and gene pool from Adam. Being dean in trespasses and sins comes from the persons own trespasses and sins. Or perhaps I just didn't understand what you were trying to say.

Then why is every human destined to death, and all of creation also, that is the result of the first sin committed in the Garden of Eden?
 

rwb

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1 Corinthians 15:44 it is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.

In the passage mentioned above, Paul draws a comparison between the qualities of our current body and the resurrected body. However, the terms "natural" and "spiritual" used by him in this context refer to the source of the body, not its nature or essence. In other words, a "natural" body is produced through natural means, such as the birth of a child to parents. On the other hand, a "spiritual" body is created supernaturally, attributed to God’s power and effort.

natural body = a body born of a woman
spiritual (supernatural) body = a body coming through divine or supernatural intervention.


@Fullness of the Gentiles
@JBO

Paul writes it is raised (not resurrected) a spiritual body when our natural body has died! Where does the raised spiritual body go if not to heaven to be as is the Lord in heaven, a celestial/heavenly body of believers there?

What is a supernatural physical body? Why is our mortal body going to be resurrected, changed to immortal & incorruptible if man shall be a spiritual body? A spirit has not flesh & bones.

Luke 24:39 (KJV) Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.

When believers are bodily resurrected when the last trumpet sounds, we shall be resurrected in the flesh, with the breath of life (spirit) that returns with Christ, to give our physical body life fit for the new earth as complete living souls.
 

JBO

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Then why is every human destined to death, and all of creation also, that is the result of the first sin committed in the Garden of Eden?
I don't agree with that. Ezekiel produced an entire chapter, chapter 18, to say that is simply not true.

Eze 18:3 As I live, declares the Lord GOD, this proverb shall no more be used by you in Israel.
Eze 18:4 Behold, all souls are mine; the soul of the father as well as the soul of the son is mine: the soul who sins shall die.

Eze 18:20 The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son.

Eze 18:30 "Therefore I will judge you, O house of Israel, every one according to his ways, declares the Lord GOD. Repent and turn from all your transgressions, lest iniquity be your ruin.
 

JBO

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1 Corinthians 15:44 it is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.

In the passage mentioned above, Paul draws a comparison between the qualities of our current body and the resurrected body. However, the terms "natural" and "spiritual" used by him in this context refer to the source of the body, not its nature or essence. In other words, a "natural" body is produced through natural means, such as the birth of a child to parents. On the other hand, a "spiritual" body is created supernaturally, attributed to God’s power and effort.

natural body = a body born of a woman
spiritual (supernatural) body = a body coming through divine or supernatural intervention.


@Fullness of the Gentiles
@JBO
Okay, but there is no indication that the spiritual body is composed of physical material of any sort.
 

Zao is life

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I agree that to be resurrected means being raised to life again physically. But what does it mean when we read of those who are dead in trespasses and sins, but not physically dead being raised to life again? (Eph 2:5-6) Why doesn't John say the souls he saw in heaven after they physically died were 'resurrected' from the dead? John writes only that they "have lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" and were faithful unto death.
There is no "have lived" in the sentence. You're already practicing eisegesis - adding words to the text, to read into the text a meaning that isn't there - in order to cause the text to agree with whatever you say afterward.

It does not say "have lived a thousand years". That's what you have read into the text, and it's illegitimate for you to add words to a text like that.
How can John see souls alive after physical death who have not been physically resurrected?
He cannot. The word he used for "resurrection" (anastasis) only applies to the resurrection of the body in scripture, as my OP shows. So scripture answers your question.
Isn't it because in life they had part in "the first resurrection" that is the physical resurrection of Christ?
No, because John is talking about the resurrection of the body, and applying it to the subject - those who had been beheaded for their refusal to worship the beast. Not to another subject or other subjects which you have read into the text.

You've already practiced eisegesis twice in the first few sentences of your post. My guess is you are going to base everything else you say upon the same illegitimate and eisegetic handling of the text.
Yes, mankind was created to live on earth in a body of flesh & bone, but man is made of more than mere flesh & bone. They also have breath of life that is our spirit, and according to Solomon when our flesh & bone dies our spirit returns to God who gave it. (Ecc 12:7) If we believe Christ, man who lives and believes in Him shall NEVER die. Christ says the life we have in Him shall never die knowing that human flesh & bone is destined to physically die. Clearly death of our flesh & bone is not death of our spirit that returns to God. Otherwise Christ would not have said that all who are in Him shall "never die." (Jo 11:26)
What does the above have to do with the text in Revelation 20:4-6, once it has been stripped of your eisegetic handling of the text?

none shall be physically resurrected before an hour coming (Jo 5:28-29) when the last trumpet sounds (1Cor 15:51-58)
The above is the only thing you've said so far that's true, but unfortunately you corrupt the text of Revelation 10:6 in the rest of what you began to say, which states:

"and swore by the one who lives forever and ever, who created heaven and what is in it, and the earth and what is in it, and the sea and what is in it, "There will be no more delay!" (Netfree Version).

You have corrupted it to mean that time will no longer exist because the Greek words chrónos ou éti can be rendered "time no longer", and is rendered in this way in a number of translations. Yet the verse says that when the seventh angel is about to sound - which implies not that time has come to an end, but that there will be no further delay.

Again, it's your own eisegesis caused by your own unproved and unprovable notion of a symbolic thousand years that began more than 2,000 years before it begins that causes you to interpret the words that way:
that time given this earth shall be no longer (Rev 10:5-7).

What are the souls John writes are alive after physical death if not the spiritual body of believers in heaven who lived and died in faith?
Again, you have read all of that and the rest that follows below on the same eisegesis that you base it on, into the text (eisegesis) because you ignore the fact that the resurrection (anastasis) John speaks about in Rev.20:5 is always talking about the resurrection of the body in scripture, and the subject John is linking that resurrection to is the subject contained in the text of Revelation 20:4-6 and not another subject which you have snatched out of a different time (the last 2,000 years) and pasted into Revelation 20:4-6.​
They are spirits of just men made perfect (Heb 12:23), after physical death alive in heaven waiting for the spiritual Kingdom of God in heaven to be complete. Then the spiritual body of believers in heaven will return with the Lord (1Th 4:14) and give life to a new resurrected body changed from mortal to immortal and corruptible to incorruptible, fit for physical life on the new earth, because as you've said mankind was created to live in flesh & bone on earth.

The answer is really simple. The first resurrection speaks of having part in the physical resurrection of Christ SPIRITUALLY, not physically.
There is no such thing as a "spiritual" resurrection mentioned anywhere in the New Testament. Every single mention of the resurrection in the New Testament speaks of the resurrection of the body:

This can only happen when man is born again through the Spirit of Christ within us. When man is born again of the Spirit of Christ, we possess eternal life through His Spirit and though our physical body will die, our spirit through the Spirit of Christ can NEVER die!
"And this is the record, that God has given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. He that has the Son has life; and he that has not the Son of God has not life." -- 1 John 5:11-12.

Only in the Word is life. (John 1:4).

"And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in gehennah." (Mat.10:28)

-- He (Christ) alone possesses immortality and lives in unapproachable light,

whom no human has ever seen

or is able to see.

To him be honor and eternal power! Amen. --- 1 Timothy 6:15-16, NETfree version.

-- "For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has given to the Son to have life within Himself" -- John 5:26

He alone posseses the leys of death and of hades:

-- "I am the First and the Last, and the Living One, and I became dead, and behold, I am alive for ever and ever, Amen. And I have the keys of hades and of death." -- Revelation 1:17-18.

"If anyone does not abide in Me, he is cast out as a branch and is withered. And they gather and cast them into the fire, and they are burned. If you abide in Me, and My words abide in you, you shall ask what you will, and it shall be done to you." -- John 15:6-7.

If we do not abide in the Word of God, then we will die. "You will not surely die" is a lie from the beginning. So instead of misrepresenting Jesus regarding what He said, let's see what He actually said:

"Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believes in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live [záō]:"

"And whosoever lives [záō] and believes in me shall never die. Believe you this?"


The list of ALL the New Testament verses using the Greek word záō (alive) is listed in the OP of this thread, which, though it's 100% true, you no doubt will continmue to ignore as long as it exposes your interpreation of the verses you are now talking about, as in error.

All New Testament verses using the Greek word záō (alive) are referring either to the living (záō) God, or in reference to being alive (záō) in human bodies:-

I've also listed them below:


And just for convenience sake, for the sake of all Christians who are able to hear biblical doctrine, I've also listed the context of each verse talking about quickening etc here:


The subject of the resurrection mentioned in Rev.20:5 is in the text (those who had been martyred for their refusal to worship the beast). You have snatched a separate group out of another time, and inserted that group into the text (eisegesis), in order that you may change the meaning of the thousand years it's also talking about.

Your way of interpreting any text which might present a problem with any position you already hold, is a very unprofessional way of studying scripture, IMO.
 

rwb

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We understand the meaning of a term from within the context of the passage.

Ephesians 2:1-7
And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the ages to come He might show the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.

by nature children of wrath

Paul compares and contrasts our former life walking in sin, with our current life walking with Christ. In that context, he mentions three distinct aspects of our walking in sin: we were "dead" in our trespasses and sins, we walked according to the course of this world, and we were, by nature, children of wrath. Given these three aspects, what can it mean to be "dead"? Obviously, Paul is using the term "dead" in a figurative sense. Those who are literally dead can't walk at all, let alone walk according to the course of this world. Even here we have two plausible options for what Paul might have meant: 1) Prudence, or 2) Death sentence

Death Sentence:
Dead = sentenced to death. According to the New Testament, death is the just penalty for sin. Death in the figurative sense can describe the end of something, such as a relationship, a career, or a phase of life. It can also be used to describe a feeling of emptiness or loss, such as the death of a dream or hope. Finally, it can also be used to indicate capital punishment, which is to take place at the final judgment. Ultimately, Paul says, we were by nature children of wrath.

Alive = pardoned. To be alive, in this sense is to have one's sins forgiven, to be pardoned, and to be set free from death producing activities. Those in Christ will implement a course of action consisting of "Life-giving" activities. Life-giving activities are actions that promote a sense of well-being, happiness and fulfillment: volunteering, self-care, creative pursuits, spending time in nature, and connecting with others. These are among the many life-giving activities available to those who follow Christ and live according to the course that he sets for our life. We are not only freed from the death penalty; we are free to practice beneficial and rewarding activities that promote life.

Prudence:
Dead = Ineffectual
. Our evaluation of the effectiveness of a particular course of action is based on the aim or goal we have set for ourselves. As human beings, we all strive for peace, prosperity, well-being, fulfillment, and human flourishing. In order to achieve these desirable conditions, we need to implement a specific course of action. The question is, what steps or actions should we take to attain these beneficial ends? "If someone chooses to follow the ways of this world, which are controlled by the ruler of the air, they have chosen a path that is pointless, ineffective, fruitless, and futile. Those who walk according to this world are unable to achieve true peace with God, prosperity, or well-being. Their way of life is essentially dead and cannot lead to human flourishing."

Alive = effectual. If someone chooses to follow the ways of Christ, he leads that individual in the course of action that will eventually result in an effective means to gain peace with God, human flourishing, well-being, and human fulfillment.

Either Paul was talking about "prudence" or he was talking about pardon. He wasn't saying that a spirit was dead.

No he wasn't, I agree! He was qualifying how man is dead! In trespasses and sins! Why is that distinction important to understand? These words weren't spoken to those who had been physically dead, but were before having eternal life through Christ DEAD IN TRESPASSES AND SINS! Does that not at the very least imply being dead spiritually we have no ability to commune with or even know God? Which is why only those who were once dead in trespasses and sin had to be quickened (made alive spiritually) to have everlasting spiritual life through Christ. WE MUST BE BORN AGAIN...spiritually, not physically!
 

Zao is life

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Yes, the spirit is the breath of life that is within every living breathing creature upon the earth. When we are in Christ the breath of life within (spirit) that identifies who man is, does not die when our physical body dies. It returns to God who gave it (Ecc 12:7). If before we died our breath of life (spirit) was born again through the Spirit from Christ, then our body returns to dust and our breath of life (spirit) returns to God alive forever and shall never die.
There is only one group of people mentioned in Revelation 20:4-6, and it is their resurrection (anastasis) the text is talking about. The group of people is the subject. They are those who had been martyred for their refusal to worship the beast.

Just like Dispensationalists cut Daniel 9:27 out of Daniel 9 and paste it into a folder titled "7 years before the return of Messiah", so you cut all people who died in Christ out of the last 2,000 years and paste them into Revelation 20:4-6 so that you can make the thousand mentioned there fit your faulty interpretation of it.

That is indeed all your assertions amount to. The resurrection (anastasis) mentioned in Revelation 20:5 is a word which always (without exception) refers to the resurrection of the body in the New Testament, and the subject is those who had been beheaded for their refusal to worship the beast. It's talking about no one else.
 

JBO

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He cannot. The word he used for "resurrection" (anastasis) only applies to the resurrection of the body in scripture, as my OP shows. So scripture answers your question.
1 Corinthians 15 shows pretty clearly that "resurrection" (anastasis) is not the resurrection of the physical body. In fact when it speaks of the bodily resurrection of Jesus Christ in Matthew 27:53, the Greek word is "egersis". That is the same base word used in describing the physical raising of Lazarus from the dead by Christ (John 12:9, 17).
 

Zao is life

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Greek grammar demands it. The Greek word for "those who..." does not modify "souls". It is not a part of a prepositional phrase. It is the subject of the second phrase.
That's a matter of opinion. A lot of Greek scholars will disagree with you on that one. And it's very obvious that your opinion is based on your need to have the souls mentioned in Revelation 20:4-6 two different groups of people. But anyway .. that's the way you want to read it.
 

JBO

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That's a matter of opinion. A lot of Greek scholars will disagree with you on that one. And it's very obvious that your opinion is based on your need to have the souls mentioned in Revelation 20:4-6 two different groups of people. But anyway .. that's the way you want to read it.
My opinion is based upon Greek grammar. I actually had a couple of semesters of Greek, but that was so long ago. I am not a Greek scholar, but I know a couple who are.

And it is not the souls of two different groups. One group is said to be souls, the second group is not said to be souls.

As for opinions, even your forum ID gives away your opinion and bias in this regard.
 

rwb

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There is no "have lived" in the sentence. You're already practicing eisegesis - adding words to the text to read into the text a meaning that isn't there - in order to cause the text to agree with whatever you say afterward.

It does not say "have lived a thousand years". That's what you have read into the text, and it's illegitimate for you to add words to a text like that.

I agree! John simply writes they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. And shall reign with Him a thousand years. Both those who have lived and reigned in life before they died, and those who shall reign with Him before physical death, are with Christ during their lifetimes symbolized a thousand years.

Revelation 20:4 (KJV) And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.

Revelation 20:6 (KJV)
Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

He cannot. The word he used for "resurrection" (anastasis) only applies to the resurrection of the body in scripture, as my OP shows. So scripture answers your question.

Yes, they are living souls in heaven because in life before they died,
they had part in the resurrection life of Christ who is the first resurrection of the dead to never die again.
The above is the only thing you've said so far that's true, but unfortunately you corrupt the text of Revelation 10:6 in the rest of what you began to say, which states:

"and swore by the one who lives forever and ever, who created heaven and what is in it, and the earth and what is in it, and the sea and what is in it, "There will be no more delay!" (Netfree Version).

You have corrupted it to mean that time will no longer exist because the Greek words chrónos ou éti can be rendered "time no longer", and is rendered in this way in a number of translations. Yet the verse says that when the seventh angel is about to sound - which implies not that time has come to an end, but that there will be no further delay.

Again, it's your own eisegesis caused by your own unproved and unprovable notion of a symbolic thousand years that began more than 2,000 years before it begins that causes you to interpret the words that way:

It really makes little difference saying "there will be no more delay" as some translations have it or as the KJV "that there should be time no longer", because John writes it is when "the mystery of God should be finished."

Revelation 10:7 (KJV) But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.

John can't being saying that ALL time is finished. Satan will still get his "little season." If that is what he means he wouldn't have to add the mystery of God should be finished. That tells us we need to know what the mystery of God that should be finished is. The mystery of God that had been hidden, but is now revealed to all the nations of the world, is that Gentiles from all the nations of the world would complete the Kingdom of God as the Gospel is proclaimed throughout the world. In the days the seventh angel begins to sound the Kingdom of God will be complete, the Gospel will have accomplished the purpose for which it was sent unto all the world in the power of the Spirit.

See Ro 11:25; 16:25-26; Eph 3:1-9; Col 1:26-27; 1Tim 3:16

In the days of the voice of the seventh angel, the time/delay shall be no longer the spiritual Kingdom of God is complete, so the only time left for this earth is when Satan is set free to gather together Gog and Magog for their final destruction as fire of God comes down from heaven to devour them all.

John speaks about in Rev.20:5 is always talking about the resurrection of the body in scripture,

Where have I disagreed with this? Once again it is during our lifetimes we must have part in the resurrection life of Christ, through His physical resurrection from the dead. Because resurrection is of the dead not the living!
No, because John is talking about the resurrection of the body, and applying it to the subject - those who had been beheaded for their refusal to worship the beast. Not to another subject or other subjects which you have read into the text.

Yes, John is speaking of a physical resurrection! The resurrection of Christ these martyred souls had part of in life (a thousand symbolic years) before they physically died. They were faithful unto death. None of them shall be bodily resurrected until the seventh trumpet sounds.

The subject of the resurrection mentioned in Rev.20:5 is in the text (those who had been martyred for their refusal to worship the beast). You have snatched a separate group out of another time, and inserted that group into the text (eisegesis), in order that you may change the meaning of the thousand years it's also talking about.

Your way of interpreting any text which might present a problem with any position you already hold, is a very unprofessional way of studying scripture, IMO.
 

CadyandZoe

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Paul writes it is raised (not resurrected) a spiritual body when our natural body has died!
The subject matter is resurrection. So when he says "raised" he means "resurrected."
Where does the raised spiritual body go if not to heaven to be as is the Lord in heaven, a celestial/heavenly body of believers there?
According to Paul, the resurrected go meet the Lord in the air.
What is a supernatural physical body?
A physical body that has come into existence in supernatural manner.
Why is our mortal body going to be resurrected, changed to immortal & incorruptible if man shall be a spiritual body?
Man will not be a spiritual body.
A spirit has not flesh & bones.

Luke 24:39 (KJV) Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.

When believers are bodily resurrected when the last trumpet sounds, we shall be resurrected in the flesh, with the breath of life (spirit) that returns with Christ, to give our physical body life fit for the new earth as complete living souls.
:thumbsup:
 
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CadyandZoe

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Okay, but there is no indication that the spiritual body is composed of physical material of any sort.
There is no indication that our resurrected body won't be physical. In fact, it doesn't make sense to all it a "body" if it isn't physical in some sense.
 
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rwb

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Body as distinct from flesh just as natural body is distinct from spiritual body. It doesn't say spiritual sarx, i.e., spiritual flesh. The resurrection body is not flesh.

As to my understanding, all I can say is that when I read the same things as you are reading, I come away with the beliefs that I have. I believe the age to come will be spiritual not material. I could be wrong, but I do not think I am.

If the body resurrected is not flesh & bone why must it be changed to immortal and incorruptible? If the age to come on the new earth is going to be spiritual and not material why create a new heaven and new earth?
 
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CadyandZoe

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No he wasn't, I agree! He was qualifying how man is dead! In trespasses and sins! Why is that distinction important to understand? These words weren't spoken to those who had been physically dead, but were before having eternal life through Christ DEAD IN TRESPASSES AND SINS! Does that not at the very least imply being dead spiritually we have no ability to commune with or even know God? Which is why only those who were once dead in trespasses and sin had to be quickened (made alive spiritually) to have everlasting spiritual life through Christ. WE MUST BE BORN AGAIN...spiritually, not physically!
In my view, the term "spiritual death" has no meaning. Once the spirit dies, the entire person dies. So I can't conceive of a case where a living person has a dead spirit.
 

Zao is life

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If the body resurrected is not flesh & bone why must it be changed to immortal and incorruptible? If the age to come on the new earth is going to be spiritual and not material why create a new heaven and new earth?
I agree. There would be no "earth" spoken of if it's all spiritual and nothing material.