There are 5 meanings from Greek to English for proskenaue--1) worship to God, 2) obesiance to a king 3) honor to a judge, plus 2 others. It means bow and kiss the feet. When one looks at facts, they find this-Psalm 45:7--The Israelite religion knew 100% the Messiah has a God, and is not God, thus did not bow to worship Jesus, they bowed in obesiance to their king. Errors in trinity translation to fit false council teachings translated worship to Jesus. The only translating in existence was catholicism translating when the protestants translated. There are many errors in your altered versions of Gods word. They contradict Jesus teachings.
There was a translation by a greek scholar in 1822 comparing Greek to English of the NT--a god small g in the last line at John 1:1 was proved to be correct. Rejected by all using error filled translations because it exposes their religions as false.
firstly, the greater MAJORITY of English translations read WORSHIP in Hebrews 1:6.
secondly, the 1950 edition of the New World Translation, which I have, published by the Jehovah's Witnesses, reads, “And let all God's angels worship him”. WHY was this changed in later editions?
thirdly, The Emphatic Diaglott New Testament, which is also published by the Jehovah’s Witnesses, reads, “worship” (1864 and 1942, ed)
fourthly, the early Jews understood Psalm 45:7 as an address to Yahweh, as in the Jewish Aramaic Targum on the Psalm, the words are used as a direct address to Jehovah, “The throne of Thy majesty, O Jehovah, abideth for ever and ever.” (Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges). The Hebrew scholar, Aquila, who published a Greek Version of the Old Testament, in the middle of the 2nd century A.D., translates the Hebrew, by the Greek, “ο θρονος σου θεε”, which is undoubtedly the vocative, “Your throne, O God”. (Fredrick Field, Origen Hexapla, vol. II, pp. 162-163). It is clear, that as early as the 2nd century, the Hebrew was understood as the vocative, and not the nominative.The New Testament by the Unitarian, Dr George Noyes, reads: “but of the Son: ‘Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever”. Another Unitarian, Dr George Winer, also admits that in Hebrews 1:8, the vocative is to be understood.“The nominative (with the article) is sometimes used in an address, particularly in calling or commanding, thus taking the place of the vocative…H. i.8” (A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p.227). The Jehovah’s Witnesses, in both their Kingdom Interlinear New Testaments, 1969 and 1985, read in the English in the right-hand column, “God is your throne forever”. However, in the literal English translation under the Greek text, it reads: “the throne of you the God”. In the other Greek Interlinear that the JW’s publish, The Emphatic Diaglott, it is even more interesting. In verse 8, the literal English translation under the Greek text, it reads: “concerning but the Son; the throne of thee the God for the age [of the age]”. And in the English version in the right-hand column, “But to the Son, Thy Throne, O God is for the age”. And, for verse 9, “therefore thy God anointed thee, O God” (right-hand column). Both verses this translation has the vocative.
Fifthly, in John 1:1, When John writes, “καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος”, he does not mean that “ὁ λόγος”, is a “secondary god”, as suggested by Origen, and the Jehovah's Witnesses do. We have seen that the use and non use of the Greek article, does not denote a different meaning for “θεος”. What we have is a simple sentence structure. “Every sentence must contain two parts, a
subject and a
predicate. The subject is that of which something is stated. The predicate is that which is stated of the subject…A predicate noun or adjective seldom has the article” (William Goodwin,
Greek Grammar, sec. 890, 956, pp.196, 208) “General rule, The subject has the article, while the predicate is without it” (William Jelf,
A Grammar of the Greek Language, sec. 460, p.120). In John 1:1, the “subject” is no doubt, “The Word”, as it is about Him. The “predicate” in this last sentence, is “θεος”, which is a statement about the “subject”. John is here stating, that “The Word”, is “God”, as much as “The God”,
besides (πρὸς) Whom He is. In John 8:54, Jesus says to the Jews, “εστιν ο πατηρ μου ο δοξαζων με ον υμεις λεγετε οτι θεος υμων εστιν”, which is literally, “it is My Father Who Glorifies Me, Who you say that God your He is”. Here, “ο πατηρ μου (My Father)” is the subject, and “θεος”, is the predicate. It is never translated as “god”, or “a god”. So why different in John 1:1, where the grammatical construction is the same?
