Wormwood said:
zeke,
Thanks for your well thought-out response.
I agree with the law of non-contradiction as it applies to the Bible. However, your example does not fit this category. I will explain below:
First, it is important to understand that we should draw our understanding about the meaning and significance of baptism from the didactic passages. Passages that give clear teaching about what baptism means should be our guide for understanding how the NT church understood it. We need to be very cautious about using narratives as a means of defining the conversion process. As I am sure you know, the narratives in the NT are seldom to be considered "normative" in the life of the church. Otherwise, we should all expect to be healing each other with hankys and shadows.
So lets look at Acts 8:12. Yes, belief comes prior to baptism. Why would anyone baptize an unbeliever? This still doesnt change the meaning and significance of baptism. Clearly, in the context of Acts 2:38, the audience believes the message Peter preached about Jesus. If not, they wouldnt have been "cut to the heart." Yet their belief did not prevent Peter from also calling them to repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins and to be saved from "a wicked and corrupt generation." Obviously, if they had not believed, I doubt they would have asked "What shall we do?" and I doubt Peter would have called them to repent and be baptized.
Also, if we are going to look at Acts 8:12 as a guide for how things normally work in the conversion process, then you must conclude that someone does not recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit either at belief or baptism. In fact, the NT teaches that if "someone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Christ" (cf. Rom. 8). We see that the Samaritans do not recieve the Holy Spirit until Peter arrives and lays his hands on them in Acts 8:15. So, if we use this narrative as a guide, we are both wrong and salvation only comes at the laying on of an Apostles hands. I think what is evident from the book of Acts as a whole is that God uses Peter to bring in outside people groups initially. Peter is the one who is there to accept the Samaritans and he is also there to be the first one to accept the Gentiles (Acts 10). So, in my estimation, this is not a normative process, just as Pentecost is not normative. The normal way God gives the Spirit is not by swooping down in tongues of fire, or having an Apostle lay on hands. These are unusual events that mark something new and significant in the life of the church (the bestowal of the Spirit to the Apostles, the grafting in of the Samaritans into the church (Acts 8), the grafting in of the Gentiles into the church (Acts 10)). In my estimation, it is not wise to use these unusual and miraculous scenarios to determine the normative practices of the early Church. We should use the teaching of Peter and Paul for that, and we find that teaching in passages like Acts 2:38, 1 Peter 3:21; Romans 6:1-3, etc.
It is important to note that verse 37 was likely not penned by Luke. In fact, the earliest this verse appears is not until about 600AD. We have a great many texts that date before this time and none of them have this verse. Therefore, it seems this was added in because of someones theological concerns which do not reflect the inspired text. However, this passage is indeed important. It reflects that in a short period of time that Philip has this evangelistic encounter on this journey, he instructs the man about baptism. Why would the Ethiopian want so badly to be baptized and why would it even have been brought up in this conversation if it was merely an outward sign that had no real value or purpose in the disciple-making process?
Sure, thats good. However, I think the Bible not only commands us to do it, but explains why we do it. We do it to recieve forgiveness of sins, be clothed with Christ, die and be raised with Christ, and plead to God for a clean conscience. Those are the reasons given for baptism in the Bible. Moreover, saying, "We should do it because God commands it, but it doesnt actually have any role in making a disciple...its only a display of something that has already occurred" is a dangerous position in my view. After all, doesnt God command us to not lie? Doesnt he command us to not covet? Yes, we try to not lie or covet...but if we do, God's grace is there. People take this same mentality with baptism when they take the view you are implying. They make baptism some part of a legal code that is "commanded" and therefore becomes some sort of "law." Because we cant be saved by law, then it is viewed as a "work" and as a result is seen as trying to "add to" our salvation and is often discredited as a result. Also, I think we miss out on some real blessings God intends in baptism when we strip it of its power and make it merely a sign. Rather than looking at God's work at a particular time on a particular day to cleanse us and give us new life....we try to remember when we really believed and perhaps second guess during difficult times if we "really believed" with "saving faith." The power of baptism is that it places our trust in God's promises rather than the sincerity of our own inner convictions.
Probably a good idea :)
Look, I am not about defending Creeds. I think they are a bad idea because they make a standard for belief in something contrived by man rather than the Word of God. However, I do think you are making a mountain out of a molehill here. Obviously the blood of Jesus is the focus of our faith. I think the creed is simply quoting Acts 2:38. I dont know how quoting Scripture is an affront against the blood of Christ. I think your issue is more with Acts 2:38 than the creed.
Wormwood,
Wormwood said in blue,
First, it is important to understand that we should draw our understanding about the meaning and significance of baptism from the didactic passages.
Are you suggesting that some verses are not instructive? I cannot think of any, right now, that I would want to throw under the bus.
Passages that give clear teaching about what baptism means should be our guide for understanding how the NT church understood it.
This may be a point of contention as well later on. I get my doctrine from the pages of Scriptures. The same place the early “so called” authorities should have gotten their’s as well. If they could better understand the Scriptures than anyone today, then why would be need the Bible. These elders were prone to errors every bit as much as people are today. Besides, which theological camp do we choose these ancient scholars from?
We need to be very cautious about using narratives as a means of defining the conversion process. As I am sure you know, the narratives in the NT are seldom to be considered "normative" in the life of the church.
Then you are suggesting that we delete those Scriptures that do not support your position. Can I delete the ones that do not support my position? Actually though, I do not want to. I need them all.
Otherwise, we should all expect to be healing each other with hankys and shadows.
I’m looking forward to seeing those miracles again.
So lets look at
Acts 8:12. Yes, belief comes prior to baptism. Why would anyone baptize an unbeliever? This still doesnt change the meaning and significance of baptism. Clearly, in the context of
Acts 2:38, the audience believes the message Peter preached about Jesus. If not, they wouldnt have been "cut to the heart." Yet their belief did not prevent Peter from also calling them to repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins and to be saved from "a wicked and corrupt generation." Obviously, if they had not believed, I doubt they would have asked "What shall we do?" and I doubt Peter would have called them to repent and be baptized.
You have just affirmed that belief preceded baptism. In other words, salvation preceded bapism.
Also, if we are going to look at
Acts 8:12 as a guide for how things normally work in the conversion process, then you must conclude that someone does not recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit either at belief or baptism. In fact, the NT teaches that if "someone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Christ" (cf.
Rom. 8). We see that the Samaritans do not recieve the Holy Spirit until Peter arrives and lays his hands on them in
Acts 8:15.
I do not see this as an accurate statement. They had received and been sealed already by the Holy Ghost when they believed. The verses even confirm that they had been baptized into the Name of Yahoshua. Peter and John wanted to know if the Holy Spirit had fallen on any of them. He was speaking of a Pentecost experience. Other terms used to describe this experience are being filled with the Spirit and being baptized in the Holy Ghost. This is a subsequent experience (although it can happen simultaneously with conversion) that believers can go through, and some have never gone through this experience. This experience empowers a believer to do signs and wonders. One common manifestation of this experience is frequently accompanied by someone speaking in tongues (a language they themselves do not understand). There are a few verses that describe these very events.
So, if we use this narrative as a guide, we are both wrong and salvation only comes at the laying on of an Apostles hands.
Salvation does not come by the laying on of hands by anyone. Salvation is an experience, a change of heart, between the individual and God. No one else can be a part of that, nor would anyone else ever have the power to lay hands on someone and give them salvation.
I think what is evident from the book of Acts as a whole is that God uses Peter to bring in outside people groups initially. Peter is the one who is there to accept the Samaritans and he is also there to be the first one to accept the Gentiles (Acts 10). So, in my estimation, this is not a normative process, just as Pentecost is not normative. The normal way God gives the Spirit is not by swooping down in tongues of fire, or having an Apostle lay on hands. These are unusual events that mark something new and significant in the life of the church (the bestowal of the Spirit to the Apostles, the grafting in of the Samaritans into the church (Acts 8), the grafting in of the Gentiles into the church (Acts 10)). In my estimation, it is not wise to use these unusual and miraculous scenarios to determine the normative practices of the early Church. We should use the teaching of Peter and Paul for that, and we find that teaching in passages like
Acts 2:38,
1 Peter 3:21;
Romans 6:1-3, etc.
It is important to note that verse 37 was likely not penned by Luke. In fact, the earliest this verse appears is not until about 600AD. We have a great many texts that date before this time and none of them have this verse. Therefore, it seems this was added in because of someones theological concerns which do not reflect the inspired text.
Regarding Acts 8:37, this is not a closed case. There were writers that knew of this verse as far back 180. So, just because the Alexandrian text base omitted it, doesn’t mean that God has not spoken it.
However, this passage is indeed important. It reflects that in a short period of time that Philip has this evangelistic encounter on this journey, he instructs the man about baptism. Why would the Ethiopian want so badly to be baptized and why would it even have been brought up in this conversation if it was merely an outward sign that had no real value or purpose in the disciple-making process?
Quote
I don’t agree that baptism is meaningless. We are commanded to do it, and we should for that reason alone. Also, this is one way to declare you belief in Christ before all men. We don’t want to be closet Christians. Our belief is a testimony to others.
Sure, thats good. However, I think the Bible not only commands us to do it, but explains why we do it. We do it to recieve forgiveness of sins, be clothed with Christ, die and be raised with Christ, and plead to God for a clean conscience. Those are the reasons given for baptism in the Bible. Moreover, saying, "We should do it because God commands it, but it doesnt actually have any role in making a disciple...its only a display of something that has already occurred" is a dangerous position in my view. After all, doesnt God command us to not lie? Doesnt he command us to not covet? Yes, we try to not lie or covet...but if we do, God's grace is there. People take this same mentality with baptism when they take the view you are implying. They make baptism some part of a legal code that is "commanded" and therefore becomes some sort of "law." Because we cant be saved by law, then it is viewed as a "work" and as a result is seen as trying to "add to" our salvation and is often discredited as a result. Also, I think we miss out on some real blessings God intends in baptism when we strip it of its power and make it merely a sign. Rather than looking at God's work at a particular time on a particular day to cleanse us and give us new life....we try to remember when we really believed and perhaps second guess during difficult times if we "really believed" with "saving faith." The power of baptism is that it places our trust in God's promises rather than the sincerity of our own inner convictions.
Quote
I think I would be opening up a whole other teaching if I responded to this. I’ve got enough on my plate right now. Let’s see where the first part leads us before we expand too much.
Probably a good idea
Quote
Since the shed Blood of Christ and the full meaning behind that is what Christianity is all about, at a minimum that should be the focus of any creed. But it goes beyond that - and I return to the OP - saying that water baptism forgives sin is to me a direct affront against the shed Blood of Christ. An attack on the Blood is an attack on the Body of Christ and Christianity.
Look, I am not about defending Creeds. I think they are a bad idea because they make a standard for belief in something contrived by man rather than the Word of God. However, I do think you are making a mountain out of a molehill here. Obviously the blood of Jesus is the focus of our faith. I think the creed is simply quoting
Acts 2:38. I dont know how quoting Scripture is an affront against the blood of Christ. I think your issue is more with
Acts 2:38 than the creed.
I haven’t a problem with Acts 2:38. I have a problem with Acts 2:38 presumed to support the NC when it does not.
I can see that we are not going to make much headway here. You have brazenly proposed that we can choose to adhere to the instructions that some Scriptures give and ignore others, and this by simply labeling some as normative or narrative. Other theological camps do the same thing, but put different labels on those Scriptures that do not support their agenda. I, on the other hand, consider the full counsel of God.
It would have been helpful if you had chosen to answer the questions I asked. What theological background or teachers taught you to think this way about the Bible? I do not consider it a spiritually healthy or an informed approach. I hope you choose to answer those questions now. I don’t want to put my own, possibly erroneous label on them. It would be better to hear your forthright answer.
Zeke25