The Immaculate Conception ...

[M3n0r4h]

... is the terminology that was given to the hijacked concept of Christ's miraculous conception.

The only immaculate conception is the conception by God of Jesus Christ. So why did the Catholic church take that concept, remove the emphasis upon the one and only immaculate being that's ever existed - that being God Almighty, and place it upon Mary? Is it any wonder that they then taught that Mary is to be worshiped?

So, let's get this straight.

1. God miraculously conceives a child within the womb of a virgin who then gives birth to our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ.
2. The Catholic church then establishes a dogma that removes the emphasis of the amazing feat of God and places the focus on Mary.
3. The church labels Mary a saint and applies divine characteristics to her.
4. The church declares that Mary is to be worshiped.

The Immaculate Conception is a counterfeit, hijacked, Biblical concept that has stolen the glory from God for what He did to bring our Savior into the world and turned it into an excuse for idolatry.

Have I miscalculated?

 

[Wrangler]

4. The church declares that Mary is to be worshiped.

Prayed to but not worshipped. Other than that, good calculation. Yet, you did leave out why the RCC venerated Mary so.

It has to do with the consequences of it being otherwise. With Mary being cursed by Original Sin, it necessarily follows that Jesus entered the world literally through sin. The church was very big on this notion of “through”. How do you answer this problem?

 

[M3n0r4h]

It has to do with the consequences of it being otherwise. With Mary being cursed by Original Sin, it necessarily follows that Jesus entered the world literally through sin. The church was very big on this notion of “through”. How do you answer this problem?

Great comment, and leads into other very important, yet controversial, concepts.

Because Mary was a virgin, there is a measure of sin there that was not conveyed to Christ, BUT I believe we all, including Jesus, were born into sinful flesh. That is flesh that contains original sin and the susceptibility/vulnerability to be tempted by sin.

Automatically that brings up the peccability vs impeccability of Christ. Was He 'capable' of sinning?

I, for one, believe He was capable but showed the restraint and self control of God Almighty that we are all to aspire to and strive for.

I hope this thread isn't sidetracked to the topic of impeccability, but I just don't believe Christ's accomplishments would be what they are if He was not at all times in danger of losing it all and failing in His mission.

Without that danger, what did He accomplish for mankind in the flesh?

God deserves all the glory that He earned in His sufferings and overcoming in the flesh and we are to strive to overcome all temptations in this life as well, once we find ourselves upon the path of righteousness.

There is a whole 'nother aspect/facet to this concept as well. The fallen angels, and their offspring, were said to be incapable of resisting sin. They had no ability to withstand any temptation at all. When God came into the flesh, it was appropriate that He show a profoundly opposite conduct. Thus, He was just as susceptible and vulnerable as all are in the flesh, but without ever slipping even once. That also brings into light the concept that when we give-in to sensual, sinful desires, we are following the ways of the enemy of God. We are not following the Way of Christ and, thus, not conducting ourselves as Christians.

ETA: Who we pray to is who we worship. Catholics pray to AND worship Mary. Just as Christians pray to AND worship Christ - the True ones anyway.

 

[Wrangler]

Who we pray to is who we worship.

Where do you get this from?

Pray means to ask. Worship means revere. You can do both to anyone.

Where does the idea come from that praying (asking) to or worshipping (revering) is only done to God?

I am serious about these origin questions.

Just as Christians pray to AND worship Christ - the True ones anyway.

Not according to Christ, himself.

true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth
John 4:23

 

[M3n0r4h]

Where does the idea come from that praying (asking) to or worshipping (revering) is only done to God?

Antiquity.

Not according to Christ, himself.

Nobody in the Bible, including angels, allowed anybody to worship them BUT Christ.

Why do you suppose the Catholic church took a foundational Biblical concept, that of Christ being our Savior, and twisted it to being Mary, who was supposedly born perfect, immaculate, making her somehow divine for giving birth to Christ and thus causing Catholics to pray to AND worship her?

Why did the Catholic church do all that?

 

[Wrangler]

Nobody in the Bible, including angels, allowed anybody to worship them BUT Christ.

This is simply not true. At least 3 others: Nebuchanazeer, David and Daniel were all worshipped. The idea of "allowing" worship is a red-herring.