Let me get this straight. Pretty much all the translators translated the verse as......Many of Those.........and .........Many of Them. You want come along and change the translation to abundance because properly translated it proves what you are saying is incorrect and does not agree with scripture. So you in all your great wisdom and authority have decided that you know more than all these educated translators.
Get real. The scripture says many of those or many of them. You are in error again, which you already knew. Deal with it.
What is your excuse for your ignorance? This is a serious question. Are you too lazy to consult Hebrew and Greek resources for further understanding of scripture?
The English word "many" there is translated from the Hebrew word "
raḇ". Most often the word is translated as "great", like in the following verse:
Genesis 6:5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man
was great (rab) on the earth, and
that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart
was only evil continually.
But, sometimes the word is used in reference to indicate a large but indefinite number.
Daniel 12:2 is an example of that and here is another example:
Genesis 21:34 And Abraham sojourned in the Philistines' land
many (Hebrew: rab) days.
In your view where you give almost no thought to what Daniel 12:2 is really saying, you assume that it's referring to many, but not all of the dead being resurrected at that time. But, the Hebrew word does not mean "many, but not all".
In the verse above, is it referring to all of the days that Abraham sojourned in the Philistines' land or just many, but not all of the days that Abraham sojourned there? It's referring to all of the days he sojourned there, right? So, can you see how your understanding that the word "many" has to mean a large number, but not all of something is flawed?
Here is another example in case you are somehow missing my point.
Genesis 37:34 Then Jacob tore his clothes, put on sackcloth and mourned for his son
many (rab) days.
This verse relates to when Jacob thought that his son Joseph had died, so he was mourning his (supposed) death for "many days". Is that talking about only some, but not all of the days that Jacob mourned Joseph's supposed death or is it referring to all of the days that he mourned? All of them, right? So, can you see how your understanding of the word "many" is flawed?
And here is one more example to support my point:
Exodus 5:5 And Pharaoh said, Behold, the people of the land now are
many (rab), and ye make them rest from their burdens.
This is Pharaoah describing the Hebrew slaves and saying that they "now are many". Was he only referring to some of the Hebrew slaves there or all of them? All of them, right? So, once again the word was used in a different way than you think it is used in Daniel 12:2.
I'll give one last example just in case my point hasn't sunk in yet:
Exodus 12:38 And a mixed
multitude (rab) went up also with them; and flocks, and herds,
even very much cattle.
Again, the word isn't used to refer to many, but not all of something here. It's referring to all the people who were going somewhere with their animals. The number of all the people was a multitude.
Do you not care whether or not your interpretation of one verse like Daniel 12:2 contradicts other verses in scripture?
Why would we not think that the following passages are speaking of the same event:
Daniel 12:2 And
many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
James 5:28 Marvel not at this: for
the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
What do you think, that there will be two events in the future when both saved and lost people are resurrected? That's complete nonsense and can't be supported by any other scripture. Do you not care about that?
Jesus made it clear that an hour is coming when ALL of the dead will be raised. Why would we think that Daniel was not referring to the same thing in Daniel 12:2? Only doctrinal bias and a lack of understanding of the Hebrew word "rab" could lead someone to that conclusion. Daniel referred to the same resurrection of all of the dead that Jesus did and he referred to the number of all the dead being resurrected as "many". The phrase "a multitude" also could have been used there instead of "many of them". In no way, shape or form was Daniel intending to say that only some, but not all, of the dead would be resurrected at the time he was referring to in Daniel 12:1-3.
We should also consider the fact that Paul indicated that all of the dead in Christ will be resurrected at the same time (1 Cor 15:22-23), so there is no reason to think that believers will be resurrected at two or more different times. What Daniel 12:2, John 5:28-29 and Acts 24:15 tell us is that the lost will all be resurrected at generally the same time as all of those who are saved.
