Actually, I do know Greek.
Modern scholars can make the same claim but they could not order a pizza in Greek. In addition, the expert in Greek I mentioned to you is aware of the two grammatical issues involved in regard to the Comma (1 John 5:7), which agrees with others in history who knew Greek and stated the same thing. Do you even know who these people are?
The word in question is porneia - and it means all kinds of sexual immorality, not just fornication. And to confine the meaning in Matthew 5:32 to sex before marriage makes no sense in the context.
The Greek word "porneia" can be translated as "fornication," which often refers to sexual intercourse before marriage. While "porneia" is a broad term that covers various forms of sexual immorality, the definition can vary depending on the context within the Bible, but "fornication" is a common English translation used to describe sexual relations outside the bonds of marriage. Again, some of the KJV translators knew Greek their whole lives and were experts in it. They most likely had access to resources we do not even have today because of the London fire in 1666. Folks today are trying to make guesses on limited information. They also are not reading things in context.
Incidentally, in any language, meaning is determined by usage, not etymology.
And yet there is no Greek word that means 'Godhead', so what is it that they were actually translating?
While direct attribution of the concept of "Godhead" to the Trinity by early church fathers using that exact term isn't available due to linguistic and historical contexts, the theological foundations they laid clearly align with and support the interpretation of "Godhead" in a Trinitarian sense as understood in later theological developments, including those that influenced the translation of the KJV. This is evident if you look at the context. Again, you have to think that not all information we have today can be traced by history. Things have been lost and when that happens, you have to look at the context. In fact, today the word “Godhead” can refer to the Trinity in an English dictionary. There is a reason for that. But the Modern Scholars like to push their agenda and their interpretation on things because if they didn’t they would be out of a job. The Modern Bible Industrial Complex is big money.
The Johannine comma is famous/notorious for its absence from all ancient Greek manuscripts. Its lack of provenance makes it inadmissible as a proof-text even if you yourself believe that it's genuine. It wasn't in early editions of the Textus Receptus either, and German Bibles have never included it.
Actually, it is in German Bibles.
textus-receptus.com
It is also funny that Modern Textual Critics all of a sudden become Majority Text folk when it comes to the Comma. They really are not for the Majority of manuscripts but they follow Vaticanus and Sinaiticus and a few other Alexandrian manuscripts (Which is the minority).
Also, please check out my 4 page PDF here on a Defense of the Comma.
Note: Simply click on the image below to view.
Note: Some of the links I have not added yet.
I haven't investigated a large number of modern Bibles,
You should. You will be shocked at the differences when you compare it to the KJV.
but in the NIV you will find a number of verses that clearly state Jesus' deity (e.g. John 1:18, Titus 2:13, II Peter 1:1)
There are verses that watered down in the NIV involving the deity of Jesus Christ.
#1. Revelation Twenty.
Revelation 20:12 KJB
“And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God, and the books were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works.”
Revelation 20:12 NIV
“And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the Book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books.”
In Revelation 20:12 in the KJV, the word "God" is mentioned in the context of the Judgment. Jesus is quoted as saying, "For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son" (John 5:22), and the apostle Paul states, "For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad" (2 Corinthians 5:10); Meaning, if we were to look at all three of these verses together, we understand that, "Jesus is God.” In other words, we know that it will be Jesus who is God who will judge all men. But this truth is obscured in Modern Bibles. For example, in the NIV, the word "God" is omitted in the judgment scene in Revelation 20:12. Therefore, this is yet another offensive or attack on our Lord Jesus Christ being God. So Modern Bibles unmistakably once again challenge the divinity of our Lord Jesus Christ.
#2. 1st Timothy Three.
1 Timothy 3:16 KJB
“And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”
1 Timothy 3:16 NIV
“Beyond all question, the mystery from which true godliness springs is great: He appeared in the flesh, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.”
The King James Bible presents 1 Timothy 3:16 with a powerful and unequivocal statement, emphasizing the divinity of Jesus Christ, declaring, "God was manifest in the flesh." This rendition beautifully articulates one of the core Christian beliefs that Jesus is God incarnate. This truth has been cherished for centuries by many Bible-believing Christians. However, when Modern Bible Translations appeared on the scene, they attacked what Christians held beloved for so many years. Meaning that Modern Translations attack the deity of our Lord Jesus by changing the word “God” to “He.”The NIV says, "He was manifest in the flesh” in 1 Timothy 3:16 rather than, "God was manifest in the flesh." (KJB).
There are other ones like this but I am sure it will not convince because you have Modern Translation bias. I say this because your next reply on leaving room for abortion in Modem Bibles has escaped you.
Well, the NIV should meet with your approval here then!
However, the different wording is hardly a licence for abortion. Does the Christian stance on abortion really hang on this one text? But those who want to justify abortion will do so anyway, whichever translation they use.
This is simply not dealing with reality. Sorry you are not seeing the problem here in Modern Translations. Please pray about this. It is more serious than you realize.
May the Lord Jesus Christ bless you.
