I think you are adding on to what my post is saying. These Hebrew boys' names were changed.
1. I don't believe today name are given much thought or intention as they were in these times
Hello again TheOneHeLoves, I'm not sure that children in the 1st Century were named in much of a different than they are today (granted, I'm not sure how things were done in the Bronze age when Daniel lived). However, the custom (in the 1st Century) was to name a son after his father or a close relative, but in the case of John the Baptist, God sent the angel Gabriel to make sure that he was named "John" instead.
Below is a short excerpt about the birth of John the Baptist, but the beginning of the story, if you'd care to read it again (including the meeting between Zacharias and Gabriel) is also in Luke 1.
Luke 1
57 Now the time had come for Elizabeth to give birth, and she gave birth to a son.
58 Her neighbors and her relatives heard that the Lord had displayed His great mercy toward her; and they were rejoicing with her.
59 And it happened that on the eighth day they came to circumcise the child, and they were going to call him Zacharias, ~after his father.~
60 But his mother answered and said, “No indeed; but he shall be called John.”
61 And they said to her, ~“There is no one among your relatives who is called by that name.”~
62 And they made signs to his father, as to what he wanted him called.
63 And he asked for a tablet and wrote as follows, “His name is John.” And they were all astonished.
2. The application for us today. If your name is Daniel and you are a believer, surrendered to God and then you commit a sin, the world will now what you to be called sinner (giving power to the enemy). no Daniel may have committed a sin but that is not his identity- he is still a child of God.
Actually, I believe that Daniel is the one person in the Bible that nothing bad is said about. No doubt he was a sinner, of course, as all of us with two human parents are.
I'm not understanding what you mean in sentences 1 & 2 above, incl. how it is that we "
give power to the enemy" in some way, so if you could elaborate on that a bit, I'd appreciate it. Thanks :)
3. There is a conviction from the Holy Spirit to not use the names that were assigned to intentionally mock God.
I don't believe that that was the Babylonians intention in this case, rather, as I mentioned in my last post, I believe that they, as the conquering nation, were doing what needed to be done to assimilate certain members of the conquered nation (Israel) into their culture. If assimilation was, in fact, their goal (and I believe that it was), then intentionally mocking the God of the devout young men from Israel who they hoped to assimilate would have made the task of assimilation far more difficult, and therefore counterproductive.
Finally, while the Holy Spirit may have convicted you concerning what to name your sons and/or daughters, how can you possibly know what He has done in this regard in other peoples' families? If this was a command that is meant for all to obey, rather than for particular individuals, it would have been a simple thing to have included it in the Holy Writ ... but it was not.
Therefore, I believe that it should be considered
adiaphora.
God bless you!!
--Papa Smurf