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When Jesus made the statement, it was within the context of people rejecting Him. This statement He made as the terms of what He Himself would soon thereafter bring to the world by sending the Holy Spirit.How can you blaspheme the Holy Spirit if he is not God?
I get a bit panicked by this. Like, is there a translation anywhere that has corrected it? My panic comes from the thought that any translation I read is corrupted in places.Actually, my brother, we are not told that. The idea of father, Son AND Holy Spirit was added in by the Catholic church. The Matt. 24 verse was added in within the first few hundred years. We know this because of the writings of Eusebius...the first Christian historian. :)
It should come as no surprise that religious people have tampered with the text of the bible. But we can know when things have been tampered with. How? It doesn't fit in with the rest of the scriptures AND it serves men not God.I get a bit panicked by this. Like, is there a translation anywhere that has corrected it? My panic comes from the thought that any translation I read is corrupted in places.
I’ll go check out Eusebius. And “johannine comma” because I’ve no idea what it means even though I’ve heard the phrase before.
These are some of my observations of the Bible's presentation of the Holy Spirit.How can you blaspheme the Holy Spirit if he is not God?
I get a bit panicked by this. Like, is there a translation anywhere that has corrected it? My panic comes from the thought that any translation I read is corrupted in places.
I’ll go check out Eusebius. And “johannine comma” because I’ve no idea what it means even though I’ve heard the phrase before.