Could Jesus have sinned?

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Spyder

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If we assume that the temptations given to Christ Yeshua would have resulted in sin, then we ignore the statement that He was born with the fullness of the Spirit of God. The temptations are not to demonstrate his suffering and temptation to sin, but to illustrate the difference between having the fullness of the Spirit of God and our human spirit. We get the indwelling Spirit when we become children of Yahweh.
The Spirit of God cannot be tempted by evil. The days in the desert simply proved one facet that make Yeshua different from the rest of us. He had the one true God as His Father. Other than that, He was a man just as we are.
 

PGS11

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I guess the whole trinity doctrine goes out the door too it can't be true if Jesus is not God - the Christian Church teach Jesus is God I guess this is some kind of new hybrid Christianity where Jesus is someone else.Jesus as a sinner makes Christianity a false religion good job if that what your trying to do.Not a surprise you have abandoned your faith.
Its very difficult for the modern world to accept the theology that has been followed for 2000 years its just not acceptable to them we are going to see a lot more twisting of the Christian faith.
 
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keithr

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I guess the whole trinity doctrine goes out the door too it can't be true if Jesus is not God - the Christian Church teach Jesus is God I guess this is some kind of new hybrid Christianity where Jesus is someone else.Jesus as a sinner makes Christianity a false religion good job if that what your trying to do.
Jesus was not a sinner - Hebrews 4:14-15 (WEB):

(14) Having then a great high priest, who has passed through the heavens, Jesus, the Son of God, let’s hold tightly to our confession.​
(15) For we don’t have a high priest who can’t be touched with the feeling of our infirmities, but one who has been in all points tempted like we are, yet without sin.
 
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Johann

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Jesus was not a sinner - Hebrews 4:14-15 (WEB):

(14) Having then a great high priest, who has passed through the heavens, Jesus, the Son of God, let’s hold tightly to our confession.​
(15) For we don’t have a high priest who can’t be touched with the feeling of our infirmities, but one who has been in all points tempted like we are, yet without sin.
Correct.

Heb_4:15 "sympathize with our weakness" A. T. Robertson gives another possible alternative translation, "suffer with our weakness" (cf. Heb_2:17-18). Jesus never had a sin nature and never yielded to sin, but He was exposed to true temptation because of mankind's sin.

"tempted" The term (peirazô) has the connotation of "to tempt with a view toward destruction" (cf. Heb_2:18; Heb_3:9; Heb_11:37). It is a perfect passive participle, which emphasizes a finished state by means of an outside agent, such as the tempter. This term is a title for Satan ("the one tempting") in Mat_4:3 (also notice Mar_1:13). See Special Topic at Heb_2:18.

"in all things as we are yet without sin" Jesus is both fully God and fully human, and yet He understands us! However, He does not participate in fallen mankind's rebellion and independence from the Father (i.e., the innocent, sinless One, cf. Heb_2:17-18; Heb_7:26; Luk_23:41; Joh_8:46; Joh_14:30; 2Co_5:21; Php_2:7-8; 1Pe_1:19; 1Pe_2:22; 1Pe_3:18; 1Jn_3:5).

J.
 

Webers_Home

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FAQ: Was Jesus one of Adam's paternal descendants?

REPLY: Yes. (Gen 3:15, Gen 49:9-10, Acts 2:29-30, Rom 1:1-3, Heb 2:16-17)

FAQ: If so, then wouldn't Rom 5:12 & Rom 5:19 apply to him the same as it
does to all the others biologically related to Adam?


REPLY: Yes.

FAQ: How then can it honestly be said that he was a lamb without blemish
or spot? (1Pet 1:19)


REPLY: Jesus committed no sins of his own to answer for. (John 8:29, 2Cor
5:21, Heb 4:15, 1Pet 2:22, 1John 3:9)


FAQ: Wasn't Adam's mistake a hell-worthy sin for himself and for his entire
posterity?


REPLY: The appropriate retribution for that one particular sin was simply the
loss of immortality (Gen 2:17) In other words: had not Jesus been crucified,
he would've eventually died of some other cause.
_
 

St. SteVen

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The implications of Jesus sinning are staggering.
Interesting topic, thanks.

It seems to me that "sin" is somewhat of a moving target.

In the garden narrative, eating the forbidden fruit was a sin.
After A&E were banished from the garden (orchard), that was no longer an available transgression.
If that's not true, you had better know which tree your apple juice came from. - LOL

From the time of Adam until Moses, death reigned over humankind. (before the law was given)
Then God gave the law to the Israelites (alone) through Moses. Violations of the law law were then sin.

When Christ came he did away with the law. From that time we were held to Christ's law and God's law.
God's law was from the beginning. The law that Cain broke when he murdered his brother Abel.

Romans 5:13-14 NIV
To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given,
but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law.
14 Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses,
even over those who did not sin by breaking a command,
as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come.

1 Corinthians 9:20-22 NIV
To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews.
To those under the law I became like one under the law
(though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law.
21 To those not having the law I became like one not having the law
(though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law),
so as to win those not having the law.
22 To the weak I became weak, to win the weak. I
have become all things to all people so that
by all possible means I might save some.

Galatians 3:23-25 NIV
Before the coming of this faith,[a] we were held in custody under the law,
locked up until the faith that was to come would be revealed.
24 So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith.
25 Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.

[
 

St. SteVen

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And you know the rest of the story. Jesus quotes Scripture, and after all is said and done, he overcomes these temptations, and the devil departs for a while. We are told later by the writer of the book of Hebrews that Jesus was tempted in all points like we are.
This is to me the key point to answer the topic title question.
If Jesus couldn't have sinned, then he couldn't have been tempted to sin.

Beyond that, what would the effect have been if Jesus had yielded to temptation?
Would humankind still have been redeemable?

[
 

KUWN

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This is to me the key point to answer the topic title question.
If Jesus couldn't have sinned, then he couldn't have been tempted to sin.

Beyond that, what would the effect have been if Jesus had yielded to temptation?
Would humankind still have been redeemable?

[
St. SteVen wrote:

"Beyond that, what would the effect have been if Jesus had yielded to temptation?
Would humankind still have been redeemable?"

That's exactly what I address in my initial post of this subject. I contend that Jesus could not have sinned because there would be no possible consequence. The only possibility is an irrational one. Jesus was not two people (a God and a man). He was God who came in the form of man. Dr. James White disagrees. He thinks Jesus had two natures making him two beings. In fact, I asked him if he thought the man Jesus could carry on a conversation with his divine nature. He said "I guess I would have to say yes." If you ask me, I think he has misunderstood the hypostatic union of Jesus Christ.
 

GracePeace

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The whole purpose of writing this was to demonstrate that Jesus could not have sinned. That is a worthy event.
I don't know... you were exploring blasphemous and unedifying ideas IMO... and, at the end of the day, Jesus didn't sin, so... I guess it could be an "interesting" question, but I'm not sure I'd want to explore blasphemy to be edified--that doesn't make sense.

That said, if you're saying you're done with the exploration, that's good.
See ya.
 

Matthias

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All human persons have the capacity to sin. In the dominant Christian theology of our day, Jesus is not a human person (if he was he could have sinned but didn’t); he is a divine person (God cannot sin and didn’t).
 

GracePeace

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All human persons have the capacity to sin. In the dominant Christian theology of our day, Jesus is not a human person (if he was he could have sinned but didn’t); he is a divine person (God cannot sin and didn’t).
The dominant Christian theology of today says He was fully man and fully God doesn't it?
 

Matthias

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I guess IDK how that would mean Christ wasn't a "human person", but, then again, the issue of "trinity" brings many distinctions and definitions that I'm not really acquainted with.

In my personal experience, about 80 % of people who self-identify as followers / practitioners of the dominant theology - Catholic and Protestant alike - aren’t aware that that theology requires that Jesus not be a human person. (I blame that on the clergy for not speaking about it from the pulpit.)

If you’re interested in learning more about it, you could Google “Jesus is not a human person” and you will find plenty of information about it. It all has to do with the details of the Hypostatic Union, Council of Chalcedon, A.D. 451).
 

GracePeace

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In my personal experience, about 80 % of people who self-identify as followers of the dominant theology - Catholic and Protestant alike - aren’t aware that that theology requires that Jesus not be a human person. (I blame that on the clergy for not speaking about it from the pulpit.)

If you’re interested in learning more about it, you could Google “Jesus is not a human person” and you will find plenty of information about it. It all has to do with the details of the Hypostatic Union, Council of Chalcedon, A.D. 451).
I'm not really sure Jesus is God, because it says no one has seen God, but Christ has explained Him (including past appearances of "God", according to John--"Isaiah saw Christ's glory"), and, so, we have seen Christ... but, then, why does Christ say "I AM"... unless He just copies the Father, and Christ having "equality with God" would mean "God" is one thing, and Christ/the Word is another thing that "copies" that God, and inherits from God, so, in that sense, making Him "equal with God"... it's really difficult, because, also, Christ is the husband of the people of God, and, in the OT, God was the husband of the people of God. It's difficult to really come to a full conclusion.
 

Matthias

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I'm not really sure Jesus is God, because it says no one has seen God, but Christ has explained Him (including past appearances of "God", according to John--"Isaiah saw Christ's glory"), and, so, we have seen Christ... but, then, why does Christ say "I AM"... unless He just copies the Father, and Christ having "equality with God" would mean "God" is one thing, and Christ/the Word is another thing that "copies" that God, and inherits from God, so, in that sense, making Him "equal with God"... it's really difficult, because, also, Christ is the husband of the people of God, and, in the OT, God was the husband of the people of God. It's difficult to really come to a full conclusion.

I understand your situation. It’s a shame, imo, that by policy it can’t be discussed on Christianity Board. Immaturity (by persons on both sides of the theological fence) killed an important topic of conversation.
 
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GracePeace

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I understand your situation. It’s a shame, imo, that by policy it can’t be discussed on Christianity Board. Immaturity (by persons on both sides of the theological fence) killed an important topic of conversation.
In private message, you could communicate, right?