Christ preaching to spirits in days of Noah.

[Alanforchrist]

Paradise has two sides, as Jesus showed in Luke 16. There's a great fixed gulf between the two sides, and one side is hell per Luke 16. There's a place of separation in the heavenly between the wicked profane and the just like Abraham (Abraham's bosom). Hades is used in the NT as the place of the 'dead', and it is not specific to where the abyss is (except for 2 Pet.2:4). The Isaiah 42:7 prophecy reveals it as a place of darkness with a prison, and some inside and others outside the prison house but still in darkness.

Isa 42:6-7
6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
(KJV)

Peter's Message in the first part of the 1 Peter 4 chapter shows Christ preached The Gospel to the "dead", and that Isaiah 42 prophecy reveals what the result was for at least some of the "spirits in prison". He led those who believed on Him out of that heavenly prison. This is why The Gospel had to be preached to them also, because Christ had not come yet to die on the cross in their days.


Those who would rather believe that Christ went and only proclaimed His Victory to demons as those "spirits in prison" simply desire to hold to a tradition of men they've believed that people that have died are still laying in the casket in the ground. That's an old traditional Jewish belief, and it is not Biblical.

Prardise has ONE SIDE, As the Bible proves in Lk 16: 22--23 clearly says.
v22, The beggar went to Abraham's Bosom, [Greek, Kolpos], And the rich man went to hell, [Greek, Hades].

The, "Hell", In 2 Pet 2: 4, Is, "Tartartus", A place for the fallen angels..

Jesus eventually did go into Paradise and preach to the old testament saints.

Thanks, that makes sense and is how I understood it. Some think the spirits in prison were fallen angels, but it doesn't make sense that he would waste time proclaiming victory to those who have already been condemned to perish. That verse in 1 Peter 4:6 seems to cement what was being addressed.



Isn't Satan the father of sin? A victory over him seems tantamount to a victory over sin. Proclaiming what had happened and what it meant would seem like preaching in a past tense. Essentially, the previously unforgiven and disobedience could have redemption through the sacrifice of Christ, as he officially became their redeemer as well as ours.The spirits imprisoned who had remorse and accepted Christ could then be freed. It would therefore be the gospel message being proclaimed for a purpose. Otherwise, there's no relevance in Christ proclaiming victory over demons.



Where does it say that? Why would the saints need to be preached too, assuming they're already saved?

The Greek word for, "Preached" in 1 Pet 3: is, " Kerusso", To proclaim the victory,
and in 1 Pet 4: 6, It is, "Euangelizo", To preach the gospel. The old testament righteous needed to hear the gospel just like everyone eles.
Remember, in the old testament Jesus hadn't died to pay the price toredeem us.

Hi Alan,

I will start a new thread and explain why Jesus did not die spiritually.

Axehead

And I will prove that Jesus did die Spiritually.
He said so Himself, And He ought to know.

 

[dragonfly]

Psalm 63:9 But those [that] seek my soul, to destroy [it], shall go into the lower parts of the earth.


Hi Alan,

I've been reading the thread, and would like to pick up on a question which someone else asked, which you have not yet answered.

It is the question of where in scripture does Jesus preach to the OT saints between His death and His resurrection?


Not only am I unaware of such a statement in scripture, I believe the writer to the Hebrews deals with the attitudes of the OT saints in Hebrews 11, showing that they understood an aspect of the Old Covenant which has been lost to Christians today; namely, that when a covenant was made between two parties, they were both obliged to bring a sacrifice. We know about Abraham's, and how God accepted it, but God Himself did not provide His sacrifice until the cross. Genesis 22:8 And Abraham said, My son, God will provide himself a lamb for a burnt offering...'

The following verse tells us that all the saints who kept the Old Covenant, were redeemed by the blood of Christ.

Hebrews 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions [that were] under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.


Because Noah lived until the time of Abraham's birth, and his sons for quite a while longer, it could be argued that those ten generations which came from the loins of Noah and his sons, had all been 'saved' in the Ark.

There was certainly a system of some sort, as we see from Job's sacrifices, and from this verse:

Genesis 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.


So... why would Christ need to preach to those who were already 'living' in heaven? Matthew 22:32



Hi NetChaplain,

when this event occurred is also interesting; which might be related to when "He also descended first into the lower parts of the earth" (Eph 4:9); but this is highly unlikely...'

What are you saying is 'highly unlikely', please?

 

[veteran]

Prardise has ONE SIDE, As the Bible proves in Lk 16: 22--23 clearly says.
v22, The beggar went to Abraham's Bosom, [Greek, Kolpos], And the rich man went to hell, [Greek, Hades].

The, "Hell", In 2 Pet 2: 4, Is, "Tartartus", A place for the fallen angels.

So you're saying paradise is one side, and hell (hades) is the other side across the great fixed gulf Abraham mentioned in Luke 16. With that I agree. Because of the idea of that great gulf though, I don't picture it in an up and down layout sense, but in a lateral separation sense. The idea of a prison on earth doesn't mean it has to be below ground to be a prison. Same thing for hades and the pit prison in the heavenly.

The Greek word for, "Preached" in 1 Pet 3: is, " Kerusso", To proclaim the victory,
and in 1 Pet 4: 6, It is, "Euangelizo", To preach the gospel. The old testament righteous needed to hear the gospel just like everyone eles.

You'll also notice per a Greek Lexicon that Greek 'kerusso' is used many times in the NT about heralding The Gospel, and is also translated as preached in many cases (like Gal.2:2).

 

[Stan]

Jesus didn't preach the gospel to Noah, The Greek word isn't, "Euangelizo", [To preach the good news],
It's, "Kerusso", [To proclaim the victory], Jesus proclaimed the victory over the devil.

Jesus did die Spiritually and physiclly, If He wasn't dead in His Spirit, How could He be made alive in His Spirit??

Jesus preached to the lost SOULS in Hell not the devil. 1 Peter 3:19-20

Not having given us the verse here, we can't really know what you allude to, but I will assume you refer to 1 Peter 3:18. If this IS the case, then this verse is properly translated in English as "BY the Spirit", de pneumati, NOT "IN His Spirit" as you assert. This action is in the perfect past tense, just as Jesus cried "It IS finished", or TETELESTAI, on the cross. Death in the NT, ALWAYS relates to the physical body, wether in actual fact, or in an effectual state. Our souls/spirits NEVER die, just as God's never does. He has no beginning or end, and we in the same vane, have no end. Jesus died physically ONLY, NEVER spiritually, and the Bible supports this truth. I cannot say the same for your assertions here in this thread.