So, you regard the WHOLE KJV as "The Word of God"?
The Textus Receptus NT Greek is trustworthy as the "Word of God" - aficionados of the Alexandrian MSS or the catholic Western MSS are simply blind to the facts.
Even the Apocrypha? (I understand that SOME versions of the KJV include the Apocrypha. Some don't. I'll come back to address this a bit more in a moment...)
Nah, the Apocrypha might contain some good history, but as far as inspiration, nope.
Yet, I've read the opposite. That it's the Alexandrian Family MSS that's more accurate than the other two families.
It's not. There's a ton of missing texts in the Alexandrian that are present in the TR. Since the Codex Sinaticus is among the "oldest" MSS, scholars incorrectly equate "old" with "best" and proceed to accuse the Byzantian MSS - from which the TR is derived - as "altered".
Now, listen to me VERY closely:
According to researchers, there are letters written by the ECFs one to another
which contain references to Bible texts that are PRESENT in the Byzantian MSS but MISSING from the Alexandrian...this proves that the Alexandrian MSS - along with the Western - have been corrupted by those who hate the divinity of Jesus, the primary concern of these missing texts.
The whole thing is a sordid mess. These supposed "older and better" MSS are believed to be (which much evidence to support this) from the era of Constantine where he commissioned an "ecumenical" Bible once Christianity became legal - Eusebius, a follower of Origen who , was the overseer in this compilation. About 50 copies were made, but all were rejected by the early church. These copies disappeared, only to reappear in the 19th century as the "oldest, most reliable" MSS.
If we want to get technical, it was actually John the Baptist who referred to Jesus as the "Lamb of God"
JTB was not a disciple of Jesus. Andrew was the first disciple to recognize Jesus as Messiah, a fact so clear I can't believe we're having to discuss it.
No, Christ called Peter "Cephas" which means "the rock" in Aramaic...which is believed to have been the language that Jesus spoke.
sigh........
AFTER HE CONFESSED JESUS WAS THE SON OF GOD, JESUS CALLED PETER "PERTROS" WHICH MEANS "SMALL STONE OF INSTABILITY" - IT WAS PETER'S CONFESSION WHICH IS THE "ROCK" UPON WHICH THE CHURCH IS BUILT.
THE ONLY THING "STONY" ABOUT PETER WAS HIS HARD HEAD WHICH MORE OFTEN THAN NOT CAUSES A SOFT BACKSIDE.
...which Peter did, when Jesus asked him, "Peter, do you love me?"...three times.
Yes, once for each of his denials.
Pretty sure Paul confesses his love for God throughout his many letters.
No, they don't. Peter is recognized for his role; Paul is recognized for his own roll.
The were both great men of God - but there's nothing which promotes Peter to "first pope". I've explained every text to which you point as having nothing to do with promoting him.
To me, Sola Scriptura is incomplete. A great place to start but...not the whole story...especially if Sola Scriptura means considering ONLY 66 books as "The Bible." By your 'logic', anything written OTHER THAN Job would be outside of Sola Scriptura.
By my logic, anything written under the inspiration of the Holy Ghost is the Word of God.
The Bible says the "holy Scriptures are able to make you wise unto salvation". It says it's "quick and powerful and sharper than any two edged sword...and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart". It's able to make those who study it "perfect before God, a workman that needeth not be ashamed". It says it's "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness".
Now, please tell me, what good could a sinful man who wears a fish hat that hearkens back to ancient pagan sun worship and actively shields offending priests from prosecution be to anyone who holds such a Word in their hands?
Where is it written that God said, "I will give you 66 books of My Word"?
It wouldn't make any sense for the Bible to declare that the "word of man" (will be preserved) when it's so obvious that the "word of man" HAS been preserved...even before the first book of the Bible was 'penned.' A scholarly consensus is that the Book of Job is the oldest book in the Bible, having been written somewhere between 1900 and 1700 b.c. Yet, the Code of Ur-Nammu (the "word of man") is said to have been written (actually, 'chiseled' in stone) around 2050 b.c. No mention of God in any of the laws.
The point I'm trying to make (albeit, probably poorly...) is that Sola Scriptura kind of limits us to new discoveries as to the nature of God.
And personally, who am *I* to limit God?
And, for that matter, who are *you* ... or anyone else...to limit God?
Is God not allowed to go outside of the Bible? Did he not approach Saul...whose name was changed to Paul...before that passage was written?
The books of the Bible were not written all at once. And NOWHERE in ANY of the books does it say, "My Word will begin with Genesis and END with Revelation."
"The grass withereth and the flower fadeth away, but the Word of God endureth forever".
My God is well able to preserve His Word, that those who love Him and want to do His will can discover it from this Word.
BTW, the will of God is found in Psalms 40:8 KJV:
"I delight to do Thy will, O my God; yea, Thy law is within my heart".