Lambano
Well-Known Member
And my point was, is there going to be a pass/fail quiz about what we believe ABOUT Jesus? Or is it all about trusting Jesus to save us?Another way of stating it is: Whom are you trusting as Saviour?
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And my point was, is there going to be a pass/fail quiz about what we believe ABOUT Jesus? Or is it all about trusting Jesus to save us?Another way of stating it is: Whom are you trusting as Saviour?
A head full of information on its own even if it is correct is useless.
The devils know more facts than any of us but the relationship they have with Jesus is antagonistic.....a lot of good that'll do them!
The only thing that matters is knowing Jesus. That'll be the litmus test. To one crowd who boasted in their association with Jesus, Jesus says, 'I never knew you'....and in spite of their objections he qualifies them as evil doers......interesting huh?
A head full of right theology with no heart is the highway of self deception.
This one deserves to be highlighted.A head full of right theology with no heart is the highway of self deception.
On Who He is, so much depends...And my point was, is there going to be a pass/fail quiz about what we believe ABOUT Jesus? Or is it all about trusting Jesus to save us?
No, again, you have misread my reply. The Jews wanted to pin a charge of blasphemy on Jesus to give them an excuse to execute him. Since Jesus had never once claimed to be God, (he himself had only ever said “I am the Son of God”) how could the Jews have accused him of something no one had ever heard him say?
If they wanted to kill him because he claimed to be “God’s son”, they would have had a legal right to put him to death if he had claimed to be ‘God incarnate’, because he would have broken the First Commandment
Proves that she is not a Greek scholar. She knows not what she says.The angels were called "'ĕlōhîm" compared to humans in Psalm 8:5-6 which means...
Psalm 8:5-6 in other translations reads....
- "rulers, judges
- divine ones
- angels
- gods" (Strongs)
"Yet You have made him a little lower than [a]God, ['ĕlōhîm]
And You crown him with glory and majesty!"
- Footnote: [a]Psalm 8:5 LXX angels
"I AM" is not the meaning of God's name given in Exodus 3:13-15.
This is how the Jewish Tanakh renders that passage
GOD called Himself "I AM"
Jesus called Himself "I AM"
Jesus said He was before Abraham. If Jesus is just a man how can he exist before Abraham?Jesus did not say his name was “I am”, he was simply making a contrast between Abraham and his eminence over him in John 8:58
Jesus, limited by His human body lacked the omniscience of the Father. If this weren't so He would be doing His own will.They had seen Jesus pray to his Father. Does one part of God pray to his equal self?
Jesus, limited by His human body lacked the omniscience of the Father. If this weren't so He would be doing His own will.
On earth we do this or that because its good. If we could be good we wouldn't do this or that because its good. It would be good because we did it.
Are you saying it was impossible for Adam to avoid committing a sin? Nice to meet you by the way.Hello, never seen you on the forum!
How is it possible for Jesus to be man only when He never sinned?
The scriptures make it clear that no man can leave this earth without sin.
1John 1:10
If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.
1Peter 2:22
Who(Jesus) did no sin, neither was guile found in His mouth.
The Bible teaches it is impossible for man to never commit sin.
Jesus accomplished what no mere man could.
Good question!Are you saying it was impossible for Adam to avoid committing a sin? Nice to meet you by the way.
John 5:18They had seen Jesus pray to his Father. Does one part of God pray to his equal self?
I apologize for the length of this, but there is a lot to address, so I'll break it up....
I couldn’t agree more. I myself am a stickler for scripture but I also am a stickler for original word study. The way original language speakers understood words according to their religion is more important than how later corrupted churches interpreted them. It requires more than a cursory reading of "words". To read without understanding is futile.
That is not true either. We can use any translation we like. I use a range of translations here because I understand that people like yourself have been persuaded to believe that the NWT is not accurate. I will debate that with you any time if you would like to give me examples other than John 10:33, which I have already detailed, and which you have completely misunderstood.
Finding translation errors was the reason.
Let me give you one glaring example....
The KJV is a translation that many revere as authentic, but in today’s world is a dinosaur with its archaic English and odd phrasing, but the KJV was translated by trinitarians and its bias is obvious when you study it.
John 1:1 (a trinitarian’s favorite) is translated the same in most English Bibles because all believed in the indoctrinated trinity, and so the errors were not obvious. The absence of the definite article didn’t seem to matter, but in Greek, it was vital to identify the true God from the “theos” who was his son and which identified others as authorized by him, but who are not Jehovah.
If the Jews had retained the divine name (as their scripture had instructed) instead of eliminating it from their speech, we would not be having this conversation.
John 1:1 would have read....
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Jehovah, and the Word was divine.”
Verse 14 would have been understood to mean the opposite of how it is read today....
“So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of divine favor and truth.”.....it has a completely different meaning.
“The Word” was not “ho theos” so not “THE God” but “theos” a divine one who was “with the God” “in the beginning”.....he was "an only begotten son". In order to be "begotten" one needs a 'begetter' who existed before him. Never do a father and son come into existence at the same time. It is God and his son who identify their relationship to humans. If it is not the same as we understand, then why identify themselves that way?
And since Jehovah had no “beginning” this too is important, because the Word did.
“These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God” (Revelation 3:14) Since the Revelation was given in a chain.....from God to Jesus to the angel, and then to John, (Revelation 1:1) this is God and his son both saying that Jesus is the “beginning of God’s creation”.
What else do we see when we read on? Verse 18 says in the KJV....
“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” I guess you would not see a problem....most people don’t. But there is no “Son” in that verse. If you look it up in other translations out will find similar wording inferring that the Son is God, but it says more correctly....”
"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB1995)
Now look at the way it was translated in the revised NASB 2020....
“No one has seen God at any time; God the only Son, who is in the arms of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB 2020)
Which is more correct when compared with the Greek text? They had it right the first time....”monogenes theos” (only begotten god) was in the original text. There is no "God the only Son".
The opening words to John 1:18 declare that "No one has seen God at any time"......how many people saw Jesus Christ?
So please don’t tell me that going back to original word meanings to dispel an ancient myth adopted by a corrupted church hundreds of years after Jesus ‘ death, is not the correct thing to do. We make no apology for that.
I challenge you to produce any discrepancy found in the NWT that is not accurate according to the original Greek texts. There was no trinity when the scriptures were written, but mistranslation can alter the meaning of scripture and we end up believing the lies as truth. We exposed the lies and corrected them. You can believe it.....or not.
I beg to differ, as I believe that Christendom’s defection was so early in “Church” history that no one questions the false teachings that infiltrated their doctrines and have been accepted as gospel truth for centuries. What was true of Judaism became true of “Christianity”. (Matthew 15:7-9)I am really glad that you said that what you have posted is your "opinion" only, for what you have posted is a heteros euangellion, your gospel is diametrically opposed to God's gospel
Yes. I think.Good question!
I'm not a calvinist. Does that answer your question?
What do you think?
LOL....been there, done that. I was raised with Christendom’s teachings and found them to be spiritually empty and their trinity, incomprehensible. I also found that many who claim to be Christians are merely label wearers who can ignore all of Christ’s teachings if it suits them.....and yet still claim to be “Christians”. Jesus spoke about them and how it will turn out for them at the judgment. (Matthew 7:21-23)Jehovahs witness must be taught that Jesus is God.
I apologize for the length of this, but there is a lot to address, so I'll break it up....
I couldn’t agree more. I myself am a stickler for scripture but I also am a stickler for original word study. The way original language speakers understood words according to their religion is more important than how later corrupted churches interpreted them. It requires more than a cursory reading of "words". To read without understanding is futile.
That is not true either. We can use any translation we like. I use a range of translations here because I understand that people like yourself have been persuaded to believe that the NWT is not accurate. I will debate that with you any time if you would like to give me examples other than John 10:33, which I have already detailed, and which you have completely misunderstood.
Finding translation errors was the reason.
Let me give you one glaring example....
The KJV is a translation that many revere as authentic, but in today’s world is a dinosaur with its archaic English and odd phrasing, but the KJV was translated by trinitarians and its bias is obvious when you study it.
John 1:1 (a trinitarian’s favorite) is translated the same in most English Bibles because all believed in the indoctrinated trinity, and so the errors were not obvious. The absence of the definite article didn’t seem to matter, but in Greek, it was vital to identify the true God from the “theos” who was his son and which identified others as authorized by him, but who are not Jehovah.
If the Jews had retained the divine name (as their scripture had instructed) instead of eliminating it from their speech, we would not be having this conversation.
John 1:1 would have read....
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Jehovah, and the Word was divine.”
Verse 14 would have been understood to mean the opposite of how it is read today....
“So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of divine favor and truth.”.....it has a completely different meaning.
“The Word” was not “ho theos” so not “THE God” but “theos” a divine one who was “with the God” “in the beginning”.....he was "an only begotten son". In order to be "begotten" one needs a 'begetter' who existed before him. Never do a father and son come into existence at the same time. It is God and his son who identify their relationship to humans. If it is not the same as we understand, then why identify themselves that way?
And since Jehovah had no “beginning” this too is important, because the Word did.
“These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God” (Revelation 3:14) Since the Revelation was given in a chain.....from God to Jesus to the angel, and then to John, (Revelation 1:1) this is God and his son both saying that Jesus is the “beginning of God’s creation”.
What else do we see when we read on? Verse 18 says in the KJV....
“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” I guess you would not see a problem....most people don’t. But there is no “Son” in that verse. If you look it up in other translations out will find similar wording inferring that the Son is God, but it says more correctly....”
"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB1995)
Now look at the way it was translated in the revised NASB 2020....
“No one has seen God at any time; God the only Son, who is in the arms of the Father, He has explained Him.” (NASB 2020)
Which is more correct when compared with the Greek text? They had it right the first time....”monogenes theos” (only begotten god) was in the original text. There is no "God the only Son".
The opening words to John 1:18 declare that "No one has seen God at any time"......how many people saw Jesus Christ?
So please don’t tell me that going back to original word meanings to dispel an ancient myth adopted by a corrupted church hundreds of years after Jesus ‘ death, is not the correct thing to do. We make no apology for that.
I challenge you to produce any discrepancy found in the NWT that is not accurate according to the original Greek texts. There was no trinity when the scriptures were written, but mistranslation can alter the meaning of scripture and we end up believing the lies as truth. We exposed the lies and corrected them. You can believe it.....or not.
I beg to differ, as I believe that Christendom’s defection was so early in “Church” history that no one questions the false teachings that infiltrated their doctrines and have been accepted as gospel truth for centuries. What was true of Judaism became true of “Christianity”. (Matthew 15:7-9)
Through careful study and research, I have seen that it is Christendom’s doctrines that are diametrically opposed to God’s gospel. But it’s not up to me to convince anyone of that...only God by his spirit, can open eyes and hearts to the truth. I am confident about that....what about you?
LOL....been there, done that. I was raised with Christendom’s teachings and found them to be spiritually empty and their trinity, incomprehensible. I also found that many who claim to be Christians are merely label wearers who can ignore all of Christ’s teachings if it suits them.....and yet still claim to be “Christians”. Jesus spoke about them and how it will turn out for them at the judgment. (Matthew 7:21-23)
I am happy to allow our appointed judge to do his job. It’s my job to just tell the truth and as Jesus and his disciples experienced, the mainstream were not going to be happy about hearing it. Jesus told us what to expect in John 15:18-21.
Jesus never once said he was God. Please show us where he said it directly without squeezing it into ambiguous verses by inference.