MonoBiblical
Active Member
He was the wonderful one who consults (Participle) the Mighty God and the Everlasting Father. Any thoughts on the participle?Any thoughts on the "shall be called?"
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He was the wonderful one who consults (Participle) the Mighty God and the Everlasting Father. Any thoughts on the participle?Any thoughts on the "shall be called?"
I'll take that as a no then?He was the wonderful one who consults (Participle) the Mighty God and the Everlasting Father. Any thoughts on the participle?
It is in perfect tense in hebrew and is not a consecutive future. That doesn't mean it wasn't a prediction. You fail to notice the participle which makes mighty God, Everlasting Father an object of same participle.I'll take that as a no then?
You mean a prophecy right? You believe it's a prophecy speaking of a future fulfillment? Maybe you should be clearer with you inferences?That doesn't mean it wasn't a prediction.
I see them draw on Isaiah 9:6 as the one lord and one mediator with God the father. I am not trinitarian, and I don't feel the need to find several quotes that say Jesus is the mediator.Would you see 1 Cor 15:22-28 being a commentary on Isa. 9:6?
Yes or no?
If yes, what does that section of Scripture teach you about God, Christ and his Government?
If no, explain where in the NT would you see the writers draw on Isaiah 9:6 (assuming you a standard trinitarian believer)
Interesting.@face2face
I see them draw on Isaiah 9:6 as the one lord and one mediator with God the father. I am not trinitarian, and I don't feel the need to find several quotes that say Jesus is the mediator.![]()
Interesting.
Yes, it mighty suspicious, but there is also how participles don't seem to be rendered properly into English form Hebrew or Greek. The idea that a Bar Kockba could be a mediator gives everyone a shudder.This of course presents a problem for those trying to force trinitarian dogma on Isaiah 9:6 since the Son is to be subject to the Father, then he is clearly not "co-equal" with the Father and by implication not a person within the Godhead.
Can you expand on this some more?The idea that a Bar Kockba could be a mediator gives everyone a shudder.
I guess Christians don't have to worry, but the Jews have liked into this day to lower the standards of final messiah. I wonder if a sudden misunderstanding of Hebrew participles happens at this verse.Can you expand on this some more?
Amen!Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
καὶ καλέσουσιν τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ Ἐμμανουήλ
καλέω to call is not the same as ὀνίνημι to name. They are the noun form ονομα, for ὀνίνημι, means means to name.
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G2564 - kaleō - Strong's Greek Lexicon (kjv)
G2564 - καλέω kaléō, kal-eh'-o; akin to the base of ; to "call" (properly, aloud, but used in a variety of applications, directly or otherwise):—bid, call (forth), (whose, whose sur-)name (was (called)).www.blueletterbible.org
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G3685 - oninēmi - Strong's Greek Lexicon (kjv)
G3685 - ὀνίνημι onínēmi, on-in'-ay-mee; a prolonged form of an apparently primary verb ( ὄνομαι ónomai, to slur); for which another prolonged form ( ὀνάω onáō) is used as an alternate in some tenses (unless indeed it be identical with the base of through the idea of notoriety); to gratify...www.blueletterbible.org
Jesus didn't rebuke Thomas for calling Him, "My Lord and my GOD"!Jesus did rebuke Thomas. In John 20 Thomas had plainly stated he would never believe unless he saw the resurrected Jesus and then Jesus said that only those who have not seen, yet believe, are blessed. That means Thomas isn't blessed.
You just proved my point. Thomas BELIEVED that Jesus is "My Lord and my God"!John 20
24Now Thomas called Didymus, one of the Twelve, was not with the disciples when Jesus came. 25So the other disciples told him, “We have seen the Lord!” But he replied, “Unless I see the nail marks in His hands, and put my finger where the nails have been, and put my hand into His side, I will never believe.”
29Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
And Jesus taught Thomas! Unless you believe that Jesus is a BLASPHEMER. Jesus taught Thomas the He is LORD and GOD!That's my point actually. Jesus is the authority not Thomas.
I have quoted Scripture after Scripture and you have IGNORED!Please substantiate your allegations about what Jesus taught regarding his deity. Where did Jesus teach he is God?
Nope, I'm a Bible defender.You seemed to have read it more than I have. Are you a JW?
Just like Father and Son in Genesis 1. "God said let US make man in OUR image"!John 17:3 and Ephesians 4:6 say the One Singular God is the Father.
Then why are DODGING telling us Who "US and OUR" are in Gen 1?Not according to Scripture.
How many years did you say you've been JW??? Oh that's right, you didn't. I wonder why.You seem to have an unhealthy fixation with Jehovah’s Witnesses for some reason……every person who disagrees with you is not a JW, I assure you. If you could just stretch your imagination a little bit you will see that people have a wide variety of beliefs and still call themselves “Christians”……do you call yourself a Christian? What does God call you?…….you see, it’s not what we call ourselves that matters….it’s what God calls us that counts. Right?
There is only one truth Jack…..are you sure that you have it right…..who told you that what you believe is true? When Jesus comes to judge mankind what will he say?
Matt 7:21-23…KJV…
”Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.”
You need to read that carefully because it is in your own KJV language…..
Not everyone who calls Jesus their “Lord” is bound for “the kingdom of heaven”…only those “doing the will of the Father” will have that privilege. What does it mean to “do the will of the Father” Jack? Can you tell me?
Who are the “many” who do all these things “in his name”, believing that these kinds of things confirm their Christian faith?…..and what are these “wonderful works”?…”casting out devils”? and “prophesying”?
What he says to them next is shocking, because they cannot believe what he says about these wonderful works that they have done “in his name”……”I NEVER KNEW YOU: DEPART FROM ME, YE THAT WORK INIQUITY”. Ouch!!
Do you see the confidence with which they appeal to him as if he has somehow made a mistake concerning the expression of their Christian faith? How many people believe exactly what you do?
“I NEVER KNEW YOU” means that he has never recognized their “Christianity” as genuine. In fact he sees it as “works of iniquity”. What is iniquity, Jack?
According to Strong’s Concordance it means…
So these ones are breaking God’s laws but still professing to be Christians…..what laws could they be breaking even out of ignorance? Obviously they have no idea that that they are doing anything wrong. Yet Jesus rejects them….do you know why?
- the condition of without law
- because ignorant of it
- because of violating it
- contempt and violation of law, iniquity, wickedness”.
What do you think? How do you explain that?
Philippians 2:7 (ESV)I am yet to see a Trinitarian adequately believe or explain this.
As Christ said: "I can of mine own self do nothing". John 5:30
Somewhere between post #2055 & #2056 is a truth which is not answered by imported doctrine.
I'm guessing Isaiah 9:7 might help![]()
Hi Jack,Philippians 2:7 (ESV)
7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.
Not of being God but God's attributes!
Only if the Bible is a joke!Hi Jack,
This verse is speaking to Christ being God's Son which of course comes with privilege's but instead of leaning on his Divine lineage he made himself the Son of Man and suffered for us and to represent us.
It's yet another reason Jesus cannot be God because God can do none of these things which are otherwise stated here:
To the King of the ages, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen. 1 Tim 1:17
Who no man has seen or can see!
F2F
True - God did MAKE Adam and the Second Adam in His Image - One sinned the other righteous.Only if the Bible is a joke!
Gen 1 God said let US make man in OUR image!
Father and Son!
That is not the answer about who Jesus is as revealed by the Father in heaven.Jesus didn't rebuke Thomas for calling Him, "My Lord and my GOD"!
Where did Jesus teach Thomas he is God?You just proved my point. Thomas BELIEVED that Jesus is "My Lord and my God"!
And Jesus taught Thomas! Unless you believe that Jesus is a BLASPHEMER. Jesus taught Thomas the He is LORD and GOD!
I have quoted Scripture after Scripture and you have IGNORED!
You're defending your beliefs the same way anyone who believes anything will defend what they believe. Defending the Bible would require understanding what the Bible says first.Nope, I'm a Bible defender.
There is no mention of a Father and Son together in Genesis 1. Also, I have already explained what the word elohim refers to. You immediately tried to change the topic to Hebrews 1 and started talking about something completely unrelated. That was several pages ago by now, but seems you are finally coming around.Just like Father and Son in Genesis 1. "God said let US make man in OUR image"!
Then why are DODGING telling us Who "US and OUR" are in Gen 1?
The Codex Vaticanus of about 350 C.E. (and the Codex Sinaiticus of about 375 C.E.), predating the King James Bible (pub in 1611) over 1,260 years, reads at John 1:1, 2 as follows: "In a beginning was the ("the", Greek ho, definite article) Word, and the ("the", Greek ho, definite article) Word was with the ("the", Greek ho, definite article) God, and a god (NO definite article) was the ("the", Greek ho, definite article) Word. This was in a beginning with the ("the", Greek ho, definite article) Word."How well do you know Koine Greek? Are you educated in it? Self studied?
I've never agreed with the Kingdom Hall version of John 1:1. It's polytheistic at best, and that's in complete disagreement with the Scriptures, so I know immediately without being a Greek scholar that their version is false. From my Greek schooling and studies since, I see their version is false.
Did you want to look at this together?
Much love!
No one is certain of how the Hebrew letters of YHWH (Hebrew יהוה, Yod He Waw He) are to be pronounced, but many scholars favor the transliteration (NOT translation) of Yahweh (which is only a "half-way" point), that has been translated as Jehovah in English, and of which this holy name is found almost 7,000 times in the Hebrew Scriptures, commonly (but inaccurately) called "the Old Testament".Are you talking about the word used, "Jehovah"? Are you aware that this name never appears in the Bible? This word was formed from the Masoretic tradition to add the vowel points from "adonai" to God's Name YHWH. This was done actually to PREVENT anyone from pronouncing God's Name.
To put "Jehovah" in place of where YHWH appears means replacing God's divinely revealed Name with man's traditional way to avoid God's Name. Were you aware of that?
Much love!