Ronald Nolette
Well-Known Member
Why didn't you add the New Word Translation? Are you ashamed of that? Adding the "a" is not necessary do to construct. and if you go down the "anarthrous noun" path, every noun that does not have a definite article is an anrthrous noun and only some need to have the indefinite articles "a or an". added.However, other translations, even some which support the trinity, render that phrase:
▪ 1808: "and the Word was a god" – Thomas Belsham The New Testament, in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.
▪ 1822: "and the Word was a god" – The New Testament in Greek and English (A. Kneeland, 1822.)
▪ 1829: "and the Word was a god" – The Monotessaron; or, The Gospel History According to the Four Evangelists (J. S. Thompson, 1829)
▪ 1863: "and the Word was a god" – A Literal Translation of the New Testament (Herman Heinfetter [Pseudonym of Frederick Parker], 1863)
▪ 1864: "and a god was the Word" – The Emphatic Diaglott by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London (left hand column interlinear reading)
▪ 1867: "In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God" – The Joseph Smith Translation of the Bible
▪ 1879: "and the Word was a god" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes (J. Becker, 1979)
▪ 1885: "and the Word was a god" – Concise Commentary on The Holy Bible (R. Young, 1885)
▪ 1911: "and the Word was a god" – The Coptic Version of the N.T. (G. W. Horner, 1911)
▪ 1935: "and the Word was divine" – The Bible: An American Translation, by John M. P. Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed, Chicago
▪ 1955: "so the Word was divine" – The Authentic New Testament, by Hugh J. Schonfield, Aberdeen.
If a verse can grammatically be translated two different ways, which one is the right one?
You should read other verses that sahow you Jesus is as divine as His Father.John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.” John 1:14 clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, vss.1 &2 say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person?
As for John 1:18- that is true! Up to that point no one had seen God face to face.
John 14:8-10
King James Version
8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?
Hebrews 1:3
King James Version
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:Also Jesus is called Yahweh with His Father!
No! That was John commenting on what Jesus said. He was not quoting the pharisees.What the Jews thought or said?
But they also called God, their Father. (John 8:41) What does that make them? Equal to God? They were hypocrites. Their reasoning was twisted.
Also Jesus was in existence from eternity. He became flesh as the only son of God who God inseminated a woman with.
John 5:18
King James Version
18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.I see you use the NWT which blatantly and intentionally misquotes Jesus here. union is a total incorrect translation of "heis" as union. It is the number one aqnd nothing else. NOwhere in any Greek grammar will you see "heis" translated as union. If Jesus meant union, He would have used the word "enosi". He is smart enough to know the grammar He created.So how did Jesus mean this? In praying to his Father, Jesus said @ John 17:20-22…”I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word, 21 so that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, so that the world may believe that you sent me. 22 I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one just as we are one.”
So now you are demanding of God? No one ever said they are equal in authority or even position.This says (KJV)….
“He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: 33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.”
Who ‘gives’ this to Jesus? His God.
Reminds me of Matthew 28:18, where Jesus said, “All authority has been given me in heaven and on earth”
Why was this given to him? If Jesus was God, wouldn’t he have already had it?
The Father is above teh Son who is above teh Spirit.
They are all equally divine though they have differing levels of authority. sorry if you do not like that.